3 đề thi thử tiếng Anh THPTQG năm 2025 theo cấu trúc mới

Kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia là cột mốc quan trọng, đánh dấu chặng đường 12 năm học tập của mỗi học sinh. Ở giai đoạn ôn thi nước rút, bên cạnh việc hệ thống hóa kiến thức, việc luyện đề thử đóng vai trò then chốt trong quá trình chuẩn bị. Làm đề bám sát cấu trúc thực tế không chỉ giúp học sinh rèn luyện kỹ năng quản lý thời gian mà còn giúp kiểm tra mức độ sẵn sàng, phát hiện kịp thời những lỗ hổng kiến thức để có kế hoạch ôn tập phù hợp. Mỗi lần luyện đề là một cơ hội để làm quen với áp lực phòng thi, từ đó tăng sự tự tin và bản lĩnh khi bước vào kỳ thi chính thức. Bài viết sau sẽ cung cấp 3 đề thi THPTQG theo đúng cấu trúc đề minh hoạ của Bộ Giáo Dục 2025.

Tham khảo thêm:

• Giải đề tham khảo tiếng Anh THPTQG năm 2025

• Giải đề thi tiếng Anh THPT Quốc gia 2025

Đề số 1

Đề thi thử THPT môn Tiếng Anh năm 2025

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.

CONNECTING CULTURES THROUGH CUISINE 

Do you enjoy trying new foods? Are you fascinated by how food reflects culture? If so, you will love the new global cooking workshops! The workshops (1) _______ chefs and food lovers from around the world to share recipes and stories.

Each session focuses on a different country and features its most popular dishes. Participants will learn cooking techniques, kitchen tips, and the (2) _______ history of each dish.

Sessions are held online, making it possible for anyone to join, no matter where they live. The workshops are designed (3) _______ both beginners and experienced cooks.

By the end of the program, you will not only improve your cooking skills but also gain a deeper understanding of different cultures. So why not (4) _______ and start your culinary adventure today?

Visit our website for more details and (5) _______ your spot. Spaces are limited! Don’t miss out on this opportunity to connect with people worldwide (6) _______ a shared love of food.

(Adapted from Global Flavors Magazine)

Question 1: A. gathers  B. gather  C. gathering  D. gathered
Question 2: A. colorful  B. brief  C. difficult  D. boring
Question 3: A. to suit  B. suit  C. suits  D. to suits
Question 4: A. sign  B. signing  C. signed  D. sign up
Question 5: A. book  B. reserve  C. keep  D. hold
Question 6: A. for  B. through  C. by  D. on

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

 BE A SMART SHOPPER — GO GREEN! 

Every small choice we make as consumers can (7) _______ a difference to the environment. One major way is to reduce plastic waste. When shopping, (8) _______ your own reusable bags and containers instead of using plastic ones.

Another tip is to choose products with minimal or eco-friendly packaging. This can greatly help cut down the amount of waste we generate.

Also, buy products made locally, as they usually have a smaller (9) _______ footprint compared to imported goods.

Don’t forget about second-hand shopping! Buying pre-loved items reduces the demand for new ones, which (10) _______ energy and resources.

Finally, always recycle materials like paper, glass, and metal whenever possible. Together, we can all take small steps towards a more sustainable future!

Question 7: A. do  B. take  C. make  D. bring
Question 8: A. take  B. bring  C. carry  D. hold
Question 9: A. environment  B. environmental  C. environmentally  D. environments
Question 10: A. saves  B. spend  C. uses  D. waste
Question 11: A. less  B. fewer  C. more  D. many
Question 12: A. on  B. in  C. with  D. of

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13:
a. David: It was great! I went hiking with some friends.
b. Emma: Sounds fun! Where did you go
c. Emma: Hi, David! How was your weekend?
d. David: We explored a national park about an hour from here.

A. a – b – d – c   

B. a – c – b – d   

C. b – a – c – d  

D. c – a – b – d

Question 14:
a. Tom: Are you coming to the study group tomorrow?
b. Tom: At 3 p.m. in the library.
c. Anna: Yes, I am. What time does it start?
d. Anna: Perfect! I’ll see you there.

A. a – b – c – d  

B. b – a – c – d  

C. c – a – b – d  

D. a – c – b – d

Question 15:
a. Sarah: Not yet. I’ve been really busy this week.
b. Mike: Have you finished the project yet?
c. Sarah: Mike: I understand. Let me know if you need any help.
d. Sarah: Thanks, I appreciate that!

A. a – b – c – d  

B. b – a – c – d  

C. c – a – b – d  

D. a – c – b – d

Question 16:
a. Lisa: Are you ready for the presentation tomorrow?
b. Jack: Lisa: Good luck! I’m sure you’ll do great
c. Jack: Almost! I’m just adding a few more slides.
d. Lisa: Good luck! I’m sure you’ll do great.

A. a – b – c – d  

B. b – a – c – d  

C. c – a – b – d  

D. a – c – b – d

Question 17:
a. Paul: I try to go to the gym three times a week.
b. Jane: That’s great! Exercise is so important for health.
c. Jane: How often do you exercise?
d. Paul: Definitely. It helps me relax too.

A. a – b – c – d  

B. b – a – c – d  

C. c – a – b – d  

D. a – c – b – d

USTAINABLE FASHION: A GROWING MOVEMENT

In recent years, sustainability has become a major focus in the fashion industry. Consumers are increasingly aware of the environmental and ethical impact of their clothing choices. (18) _______________.

One of the key concerns is the fast fashion model, which encourages frequent purchases of cheap, low-quality garments. This leads to enormous textile waste and significant carbon emissions. (19) _______________. For example, it takes thousands of liters of water to produce a single pair of jeans.

In response, many brands are adopting more sustainable practices. Some use eco-friendly fabrics like organic cotton or recycled materials. (20) _______________. Others focus on ethical labor practices, ensuring that workers are paid fair wages and operate in safe conditions.

Consumers also play a crucial role. By choosing higher-quality items, shopping second-hand, and caring for their clothes properly, they can extend the life of garments and reduce waste. (21) _______________. The shift toward sustainability requires both industry changes and conscious consumer behavior.

Looking ahead, innovations such as biodegradable fabrics and circular fashion systems are gaining momentum. (22) _______________. With continued collaboration between designers, brands, and consumers, the fashion industry can move toward a more sustainable future.

Question 18:
A. Many people are now choosing clothing brands that prioritize sustainability
B. Clothing prices have been steadily decreasing in recent years
C. Designers are focusing mainly on style rather than environmental impact
D. Shoppers prefer online fashion over in-store purchases

Question 19:
A. Textile waste can easily be recycled without any effort
B. Many fast fashion items are made from biodegradable materials
C. The production process of clothing also contributes to environmental harm
D. Customers are generally unaware of how clothes are manufactured

Question 20:
A. These garments are often more harmful to the environment
B. The use of eco-friendly materials increases product costs
C. This helps reduce the environmental footprint of clothing production
D. Such materials are rarely available to major fashion brands

Question 21:
A. Government policies are the only way to ensure sustainability
B. Consumer choices alone cannot influence the fashion industry
C. Individual actions are just as important as corporate responsibility
D. Only luxury brands can afford to implement sustainable practices

Question 22:
A. These innovations will likely have minimal impact on the industry
B. Such advancements may make sustainable fashion more affordable and accessible
C. Sustainable fashion is unlikely to attract mainstream consumers
D. Circular fashion models discourage innovation in design

Read the following passage about endangered languages and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.

There are around 7,000 languages in the world today. However, most people speak the largest languages: Chinese, Spanish, English, Hindi, Russian, Arabic, and others. So what about the smaller languages? According to the UNESCO Atlas of the World’s Languages in Danger, around one-third of the world’s languages now have fewer than 1,000 speakers. We may soon lose those languages completely. In fact, 230 languages became extinct between 1950 and 2010.

Unfortunately, when we lose a language, we also lose its culture and knowledge. That’s because people in different places have different ways of living and thinking. One example of this is the Tuvan language of southern Siberia. Tuvan people depend on animals for food and other basic needs. Their language shows this close connection between people and animals. The Tuvan word ezenggileer, for example, means “to sing with the rhythms of riding a horse.” And the word ak byzaa is “a white calf less than one year old.”

In some places, people are working to save traditional languages. Many schools in New Zealand now teach the Maori language. This helps connect native New Zealanders to their Maori culture. And Welsh is spoken by around 500,000 people in Wales. The Welsh government is working to increase that number to one million by 2050.

Technology offers a possible alternative to saving endangered languages. National Geographic’s Enduring Voices project has created “Talking Dictionaries”—the recorded voices of people communicating with each other. All of them are fluent speakers of endangered languages. And because these dictionaries are accessible to anyone on the Internet, people now and in the future can learn some of the vocabulary, greetings, and grammar rules of past languages.

(Adapted from Explore New Worlds)

Question 23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the largest languages?

A. Arabic  B. Hindi  C. Spanish  D. Maori

Question 24. The word extinct in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. existent  B. native  C. official  D. ancient

Question 25. The word Their in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. basic needs  B. Tuvan people  C. different ways  D. different places

Question 26. The word accessible in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.

A. available  B. dependable  C. visible  D. audible

Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?

A. Endangered languages could only be saved by technology.
B. There is no other way to save endangered languages but technology.
C. Technology could be another way to save endangered languages.
D. Technology should be regarded as the last resort to save endangered languages.

Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. The number of Welsh speakers will increase by one million by 2050.
B. Only by creating “Talking Dictionaries” can endangered languages be saved.
C. Less than 200 languages were no longer in existence between 1950 and 2010.
D. The Welsh government is trying to double the number of Welsh speakers by 2050.

Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention a present casual relationship?

A. Paragraph 1  B. Paragraph 2  C. Paragraph 3  D. Paragraph 4

Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer explore modern methods for maintaining endangered languages?

A. Paragraph 1  B. Paragraph 2  C. Paragraph 3  D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage about the urban shift and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.

[I] Global urbanisation has increased significantly in recent decades, and one of the main drivers of this growth has been rural migration. [II] Half of the world’s population already resides in cities, and by 2050, experts predict that number to reach as high as two-thirds. [III] Many factors contribute to this global phenomenon, which then gives rise to various issues.

There are many push factors which force people away from rural life. For example, rural residents have fewer employment options because there are not many large companies nearby. What’s more, rural jobs are mainly related to agriculture, so crop failures due to natural disasters can make it difficult to earn a good living. By contrast, there are pull factors that attract people to urban life. Urban areas have more industries, so people can easily get good jobs and achieve a higher standard of living. They also offer entertainment alternatives, such as theme parks, sporting and musical events, allowing urban citizens to access leisure activities easily.

In the process of urbanisation, rural migration causes various far-reaching impacts on the environment and urban life. First, deforestation occurs when city governments have forests cut down to build accommodation for new residents, which harms the environment and reduces air quality. As growing populations bring about more deforestation and pollution, the air quality worsens, which can lead to health issues for residents. Second, due to population expansion, cities are struggling to offer adequate public facilities for urban people. As a result, some low-income people are unable to obtain the necessary affordable housing and end up living in slums, where the quality of life is very poor.

Rural migration is a complicated process, of which the causes and the effects should be fully comprehended. By carefully planning city development and suitable social policies, we can provide urban citizens with good public services, exciting job opportunities and a high quality of life without harming the environment.

(Adapted from Bright)

Question 31. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
More and more people are moving to the city from the countryside each year.

A. [I]  B. [II]  C. [III]  D. [IV]

Question 32. The phrase gives rise to in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by _______.

A. originates from  B. results in  C. brings up  D. carries out

Question 33. The word They in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. industries  B. good jobs  C. urban areas  D. people

Question 34. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a push factor?

A. fewer job opportunities  B. a higher living standard  C. crop failures  D. a low income

Question 35. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?

A. Urbanisation improves the living standards of all urbanites to the detriment of the environment.
B. Urban citizens suffer serious health problems and housing shortages as a result of migration to the city.
C. Rural migration is detrimental to not only the environment but also urbanites’ health and life quality.
D. Low-income urban citizens lack access to public amenities, leading to their poor standards of living.

Question 36. The word far-reaching in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.

A. expanded  B. limited  C. negative  D. severe

Question 37. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Both push factors and pull factors contribute to the increase in rural migration on a global scale.
B. Rural migration is the most important driving force behind the phenomenon of urbanisation worldwide.
C. Adequate public facilities are getting easily accessible to city residents thanks to governments’ effort.
D. City residents’ health issues are caused by poor living conditions in the slums, not reduced air quality.

Question 38. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?

A. Despite the complexity of rural migration, a complete understanding of its causes and effects could be achieved.
B. Were the process of rural migration more straightforward, a thorough understanding of its causes and effects could be gained.
C. Not until a full comprehension of the causes and effects of rural migration is achieved does it become a straightforward process.
D. It is crucial to gain a comprehensive understanding of the causes and effects of such a complicated phenomenon as rural migration.

Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. The push factors play a more significant role than the pull factors in encouraging rural migration.
B. Rural migration has more profound impacts on the environment than on city dwellers’ well-being.
C. Without proper planning, urban expansion may come at the expense of the environment and city dwellers’ well-being.
D. By 2050, about 70% of urban population is predicted to be living in slums due to their inability to afford proper housing.

Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A. Driven by limited rural prospects and the appeal of urban opportunities, rural migration fuels rapid urbanisation, impacting the environment and urban resources, thus requiring careful planning for sustainable development.
B. Lack of rural opportunities and the attraction of city life cause increased rural migration, significantly expanding urban populations and creating insoluble social and environmental issues.
C. Global urbanisation accelerates as people relocate from rural areas to cities seeking improved employment and living standards, but this migration leads to pressing issues like deforestation and inadequate public services.
D. Limited opportunities in rural areas and the promise of better employment and recreation draw people to cities, but rapid urban growth damages the environment, highlighting the need for careful planning.

 Đề số 2

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.

TRAVEL SMARTER THIS SUMMER 

Summer holidays are approaching, and many people are planning their next getaway. Are you tired of spending hours looking for the best flight deals and hotel options? It’s time to (1) ______ your travel experience!

Our new app, TravelMate, helps you find the most affordable flights, (2) ______ hotels, and top-rated local tours all in one place. The app compares hundreds of websites to ensure you get the best prices.

Simply enter your destination and travel dates, and let TravelMate do the rest. You can also set price alerts and get notified when prices (3) ______. What’s more, the app offers reviews and tips from seasoned travelers to help you plan your trip better.

(4) ______ planning your holiday is now faster, cheaper, and more enjoyable than ever before!

Download TravelMate today and get ready to (5) ______ new adventures!

Remember: The earlier you plan, the better deals you (6) ______ find.

Question 1: A. improve  B. change  C. upgrade  D. boost
Question 2: A. convenience  B. conveniently  C. convenient  D. convenience’s
Question 3: A. reduce  B. lower  C. fall  D. drop
Question 4: A. Because  B. So  C. Therefore  D. With
Question 5: A. take  B. discover  C. explore  D. see
Question 6: A. will  B. are  C. must  D. can

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

 Small Actions, Big Impact: Living a Greener Life 

Living a more sustainable life is easier than you think! By making small changes in your daily habits, you can help protect the planet. Here’s how:

• Use reusable bags, bottles, and containers instead of (7) ______ items.
• Turn off lights and electronics when not in use to save (8) ______.
• Buy local and seasonal produce to reduce (9) ______ emissions from transportation.
• Recycle paper, plastic, glass, and metal properly to (10) ______ waste.
• Try composting food scraps to create natural fertilizer and reduce (11) ______ going to landfill.
• Educate yourself and others about sustainable living and inspire (12) ______ to take action.

Question 7: A. one-use  B. used  C. disposable  D. thrown
Question 8: A. energy  B. power  C. fuel  D. heat
Question 9: A. gas  B. smoke  C. fuel  D. carbon
Question 10: A. produce  B. control  C. reduce  D. decrease
Question 11: A. items  B. rubbish  C. garbage  D. waste
Question 12: A. everyone  B. another  C. someone  D. others

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13:
a. I’ve been busy with my new project. How about you?
b. Hi Jack! I haven’t seen you for a long time!
c. I’ve just come back from a vacation Malaysia.
d. That sounds great! Where did you go?

A. a – b – d – c  

B. a – c – b – d  

C. b – a – d – c  

D. a – b – c – d

Question 14:
a. Why are you taking an online photography course?
b. I’ve always loved photography and want to improve my skills.

c. You definitely should! It’s flexible and fun.
d. That’s a great idea! I should try it too.
A. a – b – c – d  

B. a – c – d – b  

C. b – a – c – d  

D. a – b – d – c

Question 15:
a. Did you finish reading that new novel?
b. I’ve heard good reviews. I’ll read it next.
c. Yes, it was fantastic! I couldn’t put it down.
d. Let me know what you think after you finish it.

A. a – b – c – d  

B. b – a – c – d  

C. a – c – b – d  

D. a – b – d – c

Question 16:
a. Yes, I’ve already bought tickets. Have you bought it too?
b. Are you going to the charity concert this weekend?
c. Not yet, but I’m planning to.
d. Great! Let’s go together.

A. a – b – c – d  

B. a – c – b – d  

C. b – a – c – d  

D. a – b – d – c

Question 17:
a. How do you usually study for exams?
b. That’s very effective!
c. I make summaries and review them every day.

d.Yes, it helps me remember things better.
A. a – b – c – d  

B. a – c – d – b  

C. b – a – c – d  

D. a – b – d – c

Read the following passage about The Importance of Critical Thinking and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.

THE IMPORTANCE OF CRITICAL THINKING

In today’s information-rich world, critical thinking is an essential skill. The ability to analyze information objectively and make reasoned judgments is crucial in both personal and professional life. (18) _______________.

One key aspect of critical thinking is questioning assumptions. Rather than accepting information at face value, critical thinkers evaluate the evidence, consider alternative viewpoints, and assess the reliability of sources. (19) _______________. This process helps individuals make more informed decisions and avoid being misled by false or biased information.

Critical thinking is also important in problem-solving. It enables people to break complex issues into smaller parts, identify patterns, and develop creative solutions. (20) _______________. In the workplace, employees with strong critical thinking skills are better equipped to handle challenges and adapt to change.

Despite its importance, critical thinking is not always taught explicitly in schools. Many educational systems focus more on memorization than on developing analytical skills. (21) _______________. Educators and employers alike are increasingly calling for more emphasis on teaching students how to think critically.

As technology continues to evolve and information becomes more accessible, the need for critical thinking will only grow. (22) _______________. By fostering this skill, we can better navigate the complexities of the modern world.

Question 18:
A. Many people still prefer to rely on intuition rather than analysis
B. It helps individuals navigate complex information and make sound decisions
C. Critical thinking is mainly used in scientific research
D. Most people are naturally skilled at critical thinking

Question 19:
A. Critical thinkers rarely question their own beliefs
B. This approach often leads to less confident decision-making
C. This habit encourages deeper understanding and stronger conclusions
D. Accepting information without questioning saves time and effort

Question 20:
A. This makes critical thinking irrelevant in creative fields
B. Problem-solving becomes less structured with critical thinking
C. Employees with weak critical thinking skills perform better under pressure
D. This ability is highly valued across industries and professions

Question 21:
A. As a result, students may graduate without strong critical thinking abilities
B. Therefore, memorization is the best way to prepare students for modern careers
C. Many students find critical thinking exercises too easy
D. Employers generally discourage critical thinking in the workplace

Question 22:
A. Thus, critical thinking will become less important in the future
B. This trend will make it easier to trust all information online
C. Developing critical thinking will help individuals thrive in the digital age
D. The internet has eliminated the need for critical thinking skills

Read the following passage about Remote Work Trends and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.

Remote Work: A New Normal

The way we work has changed dramatically in recent years. The COVID-19 pandemic accelerated the shift toward remote work, and many companies have now adopted flexible work policies. For millions of employees worldwide, working from home has become the new normal.

One key advantage of remote work is flexibility. Employees can often choose their working hours and avoid time-consuming commutes. This flexibility allows for better work-life balance and can lead to higher job satisfaction.

However, remote work also presents challenges. Many employees report feelings of isolation and lack of connection with their colleagues. Without regular face-to-face interaction, collaboration and creativity can sometimes suffer. In addition, not everyone has an ideal home office setup, which can affect productivity.

Despite these challenges, studies suggest that remote work is here to stay. Many organizations are adopting hybrid models, allowing employees to split their time between home and the office. As technology continues to improve, virtual collaboration tools will make remote work even more seamless and efficient.

Moving forward, both companies and employees must adapt to this new work environment. With the right support and communication strategies, remote work can offer great potential for productivity and employee well-being.

Question 23: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The advantages of working in an office
B. The role of technology in modern business
C. The future of remote work
D. How to set up a home office

Question 24: According to the passage, one advantage of remote work is:
A. higher salaries
B. more vacation time
C. flexibility in working hours
D. greater job security

Question 25: The word flexibility in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. adaptability  B. responsibility  C. reliability  D. accountability

Question 26: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a challenge of remote work?
A. Lack of connection with colleagues
B. Poor home office setups
C. Difficulty in focusing on tasks
D. Reduced collaboration and creativity

Question 27: The phrase here to stay in paragraph 4 implies that remote work:
A. is a temporary trend
B. will likely continue in the future
C. is losing popularity
D. is causing problems for companies

Question 28: According to the passage, hybrid models allow employees to:
A. work part-time
B. work only from home
C. alternate between home and office
D. choose a new career path

Question 29: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Remote work will completely replace traditional office work.
B. Companies will eliminate all in-person meetings.
C. Employees prefer working from home over going to the office every day.
D. The success of remote work depends on technology and communication.

Question 30: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 5?
A. Companies are returning to pre-pandemic work styles.
B. Both employers and employees must adapt to the remote work trend.
C. Remote work is becoming less popular due to challenges.
D. Hybrid work models will disappear in the future.

Read the following passage about Artificial Intelligence and the Job Market and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.

AI and the Future of Work

Artificial intelligence (AI) is transforming industries across the globe. In the workplace, AI is automating repetitive tasks, analyzing large amounts of data, and supporting decision-making. While this brings opportunities for innovation and efficiency, it also raises concerns about the future of jobs.

Many experts predict that AI will replace some jobs, particularly those involving routine and predictable work. However, AI will also create new jobs — especially in fields that require creativity, problem-solving, and emotional intelligence. In fact, many companies are now looking for employees who can work alongside AI tools to achieve better outcomes.

To thrive in this changing job market, workers need to develop new skills. Critical thinking, adaptability, and digital literacy are becoming increasingly valuable. Lifelong learning will be essential as technology continues to evolve rapidly.

Governments and educational institutions also play a key role. They must provide training and support to help workers transition into new roles. By fostering a culture of continuous learning, societies can ensure that the workforce remains resilient and prepared for the future.

In short, AI is reshaping the world of work. The challenge — and opportunity — lies in adapting to these changes and building a future where humans and machines collaborate effectively.

Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How AI will replace all human jobs
B. The impact of AI on the future of work
C. The dangers of artificial intelligence
D. The development of new AI technologies

Question 32: According to the passage, AI is currently being used to:
A. teach students in schools
B. perform routine and repetitive tasks
C. write novels and poetry
D. manage government policies

Question 33: The word transforming in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. repairing  B. improving  C. changing  D. controlling

Question 34: Which type of jobs are less likely to be replaced by AI?
A. Jobs involving creativity and emotional intelligence
B. Jobs involving routine physical labor
C. Jobs in data entry and processing
D. Jobs that require memorization of facts

Question 35: What does the passage suggest workers should do to adapt to AI?
A. Change careers frequently
B. Learn more about AI programming
C. Develop critical thinking and adaptability
D. Avoid using digital tools

Question 36: The phrase lifelong learning in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. studying throughout one’s entire life
B. taking a gap year
C. attending only university courses
D. switching to a new industry

Question 37: What role do governments and educational institutions play?
A. Replacing workers with AI systems
B. Offering training and support for workforce adaptation
C. Encouraging companies to reduce AI use
D. Promoting traditional industries only

Question 38: The word resilient in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to:
A. innovative  B. adaptable  C. creative  D. successful

Question 39: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. All industries will adopt AI at the same rate.
B. AI will reduce the importance of human collaboration.
C. Workers must continuously update their skills to stay competitive.
D. Governments will stop funding education in the future.

Question 40: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. AI will make human jobs unnecessary in the future.
B. The workforce must embrace change and collaborate with AI.
C. Only tech professionals will succeed in the AI era.
D. Companies should avoid adopting AI to protect jobs.

Đề số 3

Read the following paragraph and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.

In recent years, coffee has become much more than just a morning drink — it is now a global cultural phenomenon. Coffee shops can be found in nearly every city, providing not only caffeine but also a place for people to work, meet friends, or simply relax. Many young people today see coffee as an essential part of their (1) ______ routine.

One factor contributing to this trend is the increasing popularity of specialty coffee. People are now more interested in learning about where their coffee comes from and how it is made. Many shops offer (2) ______ coffee beans sourced directly from farmers, promoting both quality and sustainability.

In addition, coffee shops often create a welcoming (3) ______ with comfortable seating, stylish décor, and free Wi-Fi, which makes them attractive spaces for students and remote workers.

Of course, with so many options available, competition is strong. To stand out, coffee shops must focus on offering excellent customer service and unique products, such as signature drinks or locally made pastries.

Overall, coffee culture continues to (4) ______, bringing people together and adding flavor to daily life. Whether you’re a casual coffee drinker or a true enthusiast, there is always something new to (5) ______ and enjoy in the world of coffee.

So next time you visit your favorite café, take a moment to (6) ______ the experience — one sip at a time.

Question 1: A. daily B. monthly C. occasional D. annual
Question 2: A. instant B. organic C. cheap D. flavored
Question 3: A. season B. atmosphere C. festival D. calendar
Question 4: A. improve B. grow C. expand D. develop
Question 5: A. explore B. explain C. expect D. export
Question 6: A. speed up B. take away C. slow down D. savor

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

THE BENEFITS OF READING 

In today’s fast-paced world, many people turn to digital entertainment for relaxation. However, reading remains one of the most valuable and enjoyable activities you can do in your free time. Whether you prefer novels, biographies, or informative articles, reading offers numerous benefits for your mind and well-being.

First of all, reading helps expand your vocabulary and (7) ______ your understanding of grammar. This can greatly improve your writing and speaking skills.

Second, it stimulates your imagination and creativity. When you read, you visualize the scenes and characters, which (8) ______ your ability to think creatively.

Reading also has mental health benefits. It can reduce stress, improve focus, and even enhance empathy by allowing you to see the world from different perspectives. Many studies suggest that people who read regularly experience (9) ______ levels of anxiety and depression.

Furthermore, reading can keep your brain active and healthy as you age. It challenges your thinking and may even help prevent cognitive decline. In short, reading is not just entertaining — it is (10) ______ for your overall mental fitness.

To build a strong reading habit, try setting aside a specific time each day for reading. Choose books that genuinely interest you and (11) ______ different genres to keep things fresh.

Lastly, don’t forget to share your favorite books with friends. A good story is even better when it’s (12) ______ with others!

Question 7: A. weaken B. lower C. improve D. prevent
Question 8: A. decreases B. increases C. avoids D. changes
Question 9: A. lower B. stronger C. higher D. greater
Question 10: A. harmful B. useful C. boring D. essential
Question 11: A. avoid B. mix C. finish D. skip
Question 12: A. bought B. forgotten C. shared D. hidden

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13:
a. Hi Emma! Are you free this weekend?
b. Great! Would you like to go to the art exhibition with me?
c. Yes, I am. Do you have any plans in mind?
d. I’d love to! What time should we meet?

A. a – b – c – d 

B. a – c – b – d 

C. b – a – c – d 

D. a – b – d – c

Question 14:
a. It’s a science-fiction film
b. No, I haven’t. What’s it about?
c. Have you heard about the new movie coming out next week with amazing special effect?
d. Sure! I’ll book the tickets.
e. Sounds interesting! Let’s go watch it together.

A. a – b – c – d – e 

B. b – a – c – d – e 

C. c – b – a – e – d 

D. a – b – c – e – d

Question 15:
a. That sounds fun! What kind of cuisine are you interested in?
b. I’m thinking about taking a cooking class.
c. Excellent choice! Italian food is delicious.
d. I’d like to learn how to make Italian dishes.

A. a – b – c – d  

B. b – a – d – c  

C. a – c – b – d  

D. c – a – b – d

Question 16:
a. That’s great! Do you go to the gym too?
b. What do you do to stay in shape?
c. Yes, I do yoga classes on weekends.
d. I go jogging three times a week.

A. a – b – c – d

B. a – c – b – d  

C. b – d – a – c  

D. c – a – b – d

Question 17:
a. Almost. I just need to edit the final report.
b. That would be great. Could you check the grammar?
c. Of course! I’ll do it this afternoon.
d. Have you finished the group project?
e. Do you need any help with it?

A.  d – a – e – b – c 

B. b – a – c – d – e 

C. a – c – b – d – e 

D. c – a – b – d – e

Read the following passage about The Rise of Online Learning and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.

THE RISE OF ONLINE LEARNING

Online learning has experienced remarkable growth over the past decade. Once considered an alternative to traditional classroom education, it is now a mainstream option for millions of students worldwide. (18) _______________.

One key factor behind this trend is flexibility. Online courses allow students to learn at their own pace and on their own schedule. This is especially beneficial for working professionals or those with family responsibilities. (19) _______________. As long as learners have internet access, they can study from virtually anywhere in the world.

In addition to flexibility, online learning offers a wide variety of courses. From academic subjects to practical skills, students can find programs that match their interests and career goals. (20) _______________. Leading universities and professional organizations also offer online certifications that enhance employability.

However, online learning is not without challenges. Some learners struggle with motivation and time management in a less structured environment. (21) _______________. To succeed, students must take initiative and develop good study habits.

Looking ahead, experts believe that online learning will continue to evolve. New technologies such as virtual reality and artificial intelligence are expected to make online education even more interactive and engaging. (22) _______________. In this way, online learning is helping to reshape the future of education.

Question 18:
A. Many prestigious universities now offer fully online degree programs
B. It is difficult for students to stay focused during long online lectures
C. The quality of online learning is the same everywhere in the world
D. Students prefer in-person classes to online courses

Question 19:
A. This makes online learning less effective than traditional education
B. Online learning is only suitable for young students
C. Another advantage is the ability to learn without geographic limitations
D. Many learners still choose face-to-face instruction

Question 20:
A. Students often complain about limited access to online materials
B. Many online platforms provide free or affordable course options
C. In-person interactions are essential for effective learning
D. Most students avoid online certification programs

Question 21:
A. The lack of in-person interaction often leads to stronger teamwork
B. Online learning eliminates the need for good study habits
C. Many students thrive without any guidance from instructors
D. This makes self-discipline an essential skill for online learners

Question 22:
A. As a result, fewer students will choose to learn online in the future
B. Instructors will need to adopt outdated teaching methods
C. These advancements will make education more accessible to a wider audience
D. Many students are expected to stop using online platforms altogether

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.

THE POWER OF MUSIC IN DAILY LIFE

[1] Music is a universal language that transcends cultural and linguistic boundaries. People around the world listen to music for entertainment, emotional expression, and social connection. But beyond these purposes, research increasingly highlights the profound impact that music can have on mental and physical well-being.

[2] Listening to music has been shown to reduce stress and anxiety. Calming melodies can slow heart rate and lower blood pressure, promoting relaxation. In fact, some hospitals use music therapy as part of patient care to help manage pain and improve recovery outcomes.

[3] Music also influences cognitive performance. Studies suggest that certain types of music can boost concentration and memory, making it a helpful tool for studying or completing complex tasks. Additionally, engaging with music — whether through playing an instrument or singing — stimulates brain activity and fosters creativity.

[4] Finally, music plays a crucial role in bringing people together. Community choirs, concerts, and festivals provide opportunities for social bonding. In this way, music contributes to a shared sense of identity and belonging, strengthening the social fabric of communities.

Question 23: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To explain how music genres evolve across cultures
B. To highlight the various benefits of music in daily life
C. To describe the history of music therapy
D. To compare music with other forms of entertainment

Question 24: According to paragraph 2, how can music help patients in hospitals?
A. By increasing their physical strength
B. By improving their memory
C. By helping them manage pain and recover faster
D. By improving their musical skills

Question 25: The word boost in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A. reduce B. improve C. ignore D. limit

Question 26: What is mentioned as an activity that stimulates brain activity?
A. Listening to news programs
B. Watching live concerts
C. Playing a musical instrument
D. Attending music history lectures

Question 27: What can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. Music is mainly appreciated by young people
B. Music can strengthen social connections within a community
C. Professional musicians are more socially connected
D. Classical music has limited social benefits

Question 28: In which paragraph does the writer mention the impact of music on cognitive functions?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Question 29: The word fosters in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A. limits B. encourages C. avoids D. ignores

Question 30: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Music provides a wide range of benefits for mental, physical, and social well-being
B. Music is primarily used in professional therapy settings
C. Music’s value lies mainly in cultural preservation
D. Music is less effective than other forms of entertainment in promoting well-being

Read the following passage about Digital Nomads and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.

[1] In recent years, the rise of remote work has given birth to a new lifestyle: that of the digital nomad. Digital nomads are individuals who leverage technology to work from anywhere in the world. Equipped with laptops and internet connections, they travel frequently while maintaining full-time jobs or freelance projects.

[2] The digital nomad lifestyle offers significant flexibility and the opportunity to explore different cultures. However, it also comes with challenges, such as securing reliable Wi-Fi, managing time zone differences, and maintaining a healthy work-life balance. In response, many destinations now cater specifically to digital nomads, offering co-working spaces, accommodation packages, and networking events.

[3] While the lifestyle may seem glamorous, it requires careful planning and self-discipline. Nomads must navigate visa regulations, healthcare, and financial management while adapting to new environments. Those who succeed often cite personal growth, resilience, and global connections as key rewards of the lifestyle.

[4] As more companies embrace remote work, the number of digital nomads is expected to continue growing. Cities that invest in infrastructure and community support for remote workers may attract this dynamic population. Ultimately, digital nomadism reflects the evolving nature of work in an increasingly connected world.

Question 31: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
"This growing trend is transforming how and where people choose to work."
A. Before sentence 1 B. After sentence 1 C. After sentence 2 D. After sentence 3

Question 32: The phrase leverages technology in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by:
A. ignores technology
B. uses technology effectively
C. competes with technology
D. develops new technologies

Question 33: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to:
A. companies
B. digital nomads
C. destinations
D. freelancers

Question 34: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a challenge faced by digital nomads?
A. Finding reliable internet
B. Managing time zone differences
C. Locating suitable co-working spaces
D. Balancing work and personal life

Question 35: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Digital nomadism is a glamorous lifestyle with few responsibilities
B. Digital nomads must manage practical challenges and benefit from personal growth
C. Freelancers are the most successful type of digital nomads
D. Healthcare is the most important concern for digital nomads

Question 36: The word resilience in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A. weakness B. flexibility C. dependence D. discomfort

Question 37: According to the passage, what can cities do to attract digital nomads?
A. Offer affordable housing
B. Develop strong community support and infrastructure for remote workers
C. Provide long-term work visas
D. Promote local cultural festivals

Question 38: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Digital nomads prefer long-term corporate positions
B. The digital nomad trend is likely to decline in coming years
C. Digital nomadism illustrates changing trends in the modern workforce
D. Most companies discourage remote work arrangements

Question 39: In which paragraph does the writer mention the need for adaptability in new environments?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Question 40: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. The digital nomad lifestyle is ideal for all remote workers
B. Digital nomadism offers flexibility and opportunity but requires careful planning and adaptability
C. Becoming a digital nomad is simple and requires no preparation
D. Only freelancers can pursue the digital nomad lifestyle successfully

Đáp án đề thi thử THPTQG 2025

ĐỀ SỐ 1

Đề số 2

Đề số 3

Giải thích đề thi thử tiếng Anh THPTQG 2025

Đề số 1

Question 1: Câu có dạng rút gọn mệnh đề quan hệ: "The workshops (that) gather chefs...". Dùng động từ nguyên mẫu "gather" với chủ ngữ số nhiều "workshops".

Question 2: “colorful history” là cụm cố định, nghĩa là “lịch sử phong phú, thú vị” của món ăn.

Question 3: Cấu trúc đúng: "designed to + V". → “designed to suit both beginners and experienced cooks”.

Question 4: Sign up” = đăng ký. Cụm "Why not sign up..." là lời kêu gọi hành động quen thuộc.

Question 5: “Reserve your spot” là cụm thông dụng để nói “giữ chỗ”, phù hợp ngữ cảnh hội thảo, lớp học.

Question 6: “connect... through a shared love of food” = kết nối thông qua tình yêu ẩm thực. “Through” thể hiện phương tiện.

Question 7: “Make a difference” là collocation (cụm từ cố định) nghĩa là “tạo ra sự khác biệt”.

Question 8: "Bring your own bags" là cách nói tự nhiên: mang theo cái gì đó đến nơi mua sắm.

Question 9: “footprint” cần tính từ → “environmental footprint” = dấu chân sinh thái, ảnh hưởng đến môi trường.

Question 10: Chủ ngữ “Buying pre-loved items” là số ít, động từ “saves” chia đúng thì hiện tại đơn.

Question 11: “more small steps” (nhiều bước nhỏ hơn) → so sánh hoặc số lượng bổ sung.

Question 12: “steps towards a more sustainable future” → đi kèm giới từ in: "in a more sustainable future".

Question 13 – D. c – a – b – d

• c là lời chào và hỏi mở đầu: “Hi, David! How was your weekend?”

• a là phản hồi tự nhiên: “Sounds fun! Where did you go?”

• b trả lời chung: “I went hiking with friends.”

• d bổ sung chi tiết: “We explored a national park...”

Question 14 – D. a – c – b – d

• a Tom hỏi về kế hoạch học nhóm.

• c Anna xác nhận và hỏi lại về thời gian.

• b Tom trả lời thời gian cụ thể.

• d Anna xác nhận sẽ đến.

Question 15 – B. b – a – c – d

• b Mike hỏi đã xong dự án chưa.

• a Mike thông cảm và đề nghị giúp.

• c Sarah giải thích chưa xong vì bận.

• d Sarah cảm ơn sự giúp đỡ.

Question 16 – D. a – c – b – d

• a Lisa chúc Jack may mắn cho bài thuyết trình.

• c Jack nói chưa xong, còn chỉnh slide.

• b Jack cảm ơn.

• d Lisa hỏi lại về sự chuẩn bị – câu hỏi đến sau là hợp lý về mặt thời gian dù trật tự hơi đảo.

Question 17 – C. c – a – b – d

• c Jane hỏi Paul tập thể dục bao nhiêu.

• a Paul trả lời tần suất tập.

• b Jane khen thói quen tốt.

• d Paul đồng tình và thêm lợi ích.

Question 18 – A
→ Phần này mở đầu bằng xu hướng người tiêu dùng. Câu A nói rõ “nhiều người đang chọn các thương hiệu bền vững” – phù hợp nhất.

Question 19 – C
→ Nói tiếp mối lo môi trường, C phù hợp: quá trình sản xuất cũng gây hại – nối tiếp ý về khí thải và chất thải.

Question 20 – C
→ "This helps reduce the environmental footprint" giải thích lý do vì sao dùng vải thân thiện là có lợi – đúng logic.

Question 21 – C
→ Nhấn mạnh vai trò người tiêu dùng → C là lựa chọn phù hợp: "Hành động cá nhân cũng quan trọng như trách nhiệm của doanh nghiệp".

Question 22 – B
→ Câu trước nói về các đổi mới (biodegradable, circular fashion). B phù hợp nhất: giúp bền vững tiếp cận dễ và rẻ hơn.

Question 23 – D
→ Các ngôn ngữ được liệt kê trong đoạn 1 là: Chinese, Spanish, English, Hindi, Russian, Arabic. Maori không được nhắc tới ở đây.
→ Chọn D là đúng.

Question 24 – A
→ “Extinct” nghĩa là tuyệt chủng, biến mất hoàn toàn. Trái nghĩa là existent – còn tồn tại.
→ Chọn A.

Question 25 – B
→ Câu: "Their language shows this close connection between people and animals." → “Their” ở đây chỉ Tuvan people – chủ thể của câu trước đó.
→ Chọn B.

Question 26 – A
→ “Accessible” có nghĩa là có thể truy cập, tiếp cận được → đồng nghĩa với available.
→ Chọn A.

Question 27 – C
→ Câu gốc: "Technology offers a possible alternative to saving endangered languages." → Technology could be another way, không phải duy nhất hay cuối cùng → C là diễn đạt lại đúng.
→ Chọn C.

Question 28 – D
→ Câu gốc: “The Welsh government is working to increase that number to one million by 2050.” → từ 500,000 → 1 triệu → tăng gấp đôi.
→ Chọn D là đúng.

Question 29 – B
→ Câu: “Unfortunately, when we lose a language, we also lose its culture and knowledge.” → Đây là mối quan hệ nguyên nhân – kết quả hiện tại.
→ Chọn B.

Question 30 – D
→ Đoạn 4 nói đến việc dùng công nghệ và Talking Dictionaries để lưu giữ ngôn ngữ → đó là phương pháp hiện đại.
→ Chọn D.

Question 31 – A
→ Câu "More and more people are moving to the city from the countryside each year" là dẫn nhập về xu hướng chính – phù hợp với vị trí [I] để mở đầu đoạn.

Question 32 – B
→ “Gives rise to” = results in (dẫn đến, gây ra). Các lựa chọn khác không đồng nghĩa chính xác.

Question 33 – D
→ “They also offer entertainment alternatives...” → Chủ ngữ “they” ở đây là people (được nhắc trước: “so people can easily get good jobs... They also offer...” – sai logic nếu gán cho “urban areas”).

Question 34 – B
→ “A higher living standard” là pull factor (yếu tố hút), không phải yếu tố “push” (đuổi). Các yếu tố còn lại đều là lý do khiến người ta rời quê.

Question 35 – C
→ Đoạn 3 mô tả tác động tiêu cực của di dân nông thôn: ô nhiễm, suy giảm chất lượng không khí, nhà ở thiếu thốn → tóm tắt đúng là C.

Question 36 – B
→ “Far-reaching” = có ảnh hưởng sâu rộng, đối nghĩa với limited (hạn chế).

Question 37 – A
→ Đoạn 1 nêu rõ cả push (thiếu cơ hội, thiên tai...) và pull (việc làm, giải trí...) cùng góp phần vào di cư → A đúng.
Các lựa chọn khác sai thông tin chi tiết.

Question 38 – D
→ Câu gốc: “...should be fully comprehended.” → diễn đạt lại thành D là chuẩn nhất: nhấn mạnh tầm quan trọng của hiểu biết đầy đủ về nguyên nhân và hậu quả.

Question 39 – C
→ Toàn bài chỉ ra: nếu không quy hoạch tốt → chặt rừng, ô nhiễm, thiếu cơ sở hạ tầng → C là suy luận hợp lý.

Question 40 – A
→ Tóm tắt toàn văn: di cư nông thôn → đô thị hóa nhanh → gây áp lực môi trường, hạ tầng → cần quy hoạch cẩn trọng → A đầy đủ, khái quát tốt nhất.

Đề số 2

Question 1 – C. upgrade
→ “Upgrade your travel experience” = nâng cấp trải nghiệm du lịch – dùng phổ biến trong quảng cáo ứng dụng.

Question 2 – C. convenient
→ Cần tính từ để bổ nghĩa cho “hotels” → “convenient hotels” (khách sạn tiện lợi).

Question 3 – D. drop
→ “Prices drop” = giá giảm (cụm dùng phổ biến trong bối cảnh cảnh báo giá cả).

Question 4 – D. With
→ “With planning your holiday...” → dùng “With” để bắt đầu một cụm giới thiệu điều kiện thuận lợi.

Question 5 – C. explore
→ “Explore new adventures” = khám phá những cuộc phiêu lưu mới – phù hợp ngữ cảnh du lịch.

Question 6 – D. can
→ “The earlier you plan, the better deals you can find” → diễn đạt khả năng.

Question 7 – C. disposable
→ “Disposable items” = đồ dùng một lần – đúng ngữ cảnh “thay thế bằng đồ dùng tái sử dụng”.

Question 8 – A. energy
→ “Save energy” là cụm thông dụng – năng lượng điện từ thiết bị.

Question 9 – D. carbon
→ “Reduce carbon emissions” = giảm lượng khí thải CO₂ – chuẩn trong chủ đề môi trường.

Question 10 – C. reduce
→ “Reduce waste” = giảm lượng rác thải – cách nói phổ biến.

Question 11 – D. waste
→ “Reduce waste going to landfill” – "waste" bao hàm cả thực phẩm, rác hữu cơ.

Question 12 – D. others
→ “Inspire others to take action” = truyền cảm hứng cho người khác – đúng ngữ pháp và ngữ nghĩa.

Question 13 – C. b – a – d – c

• b: mở đầu cuộc trò chuyện → “Hi Jack!...”

• a: trả lời câu chào hỏi → “I’ve been busy...”

• d: phản ứng với thông tin nghe được → “That sounds great!”

• c: chia sẻ thêm → “I’ve just come back from...”

Question 14 – D. a – b – d – c

• a: hỏi lý do học → “Why are you taking...?”

• b: nói lý do học → “I’ve always loved photography...” 

• d: người kia cũng muốn thử → “That’s a great idea! I should try...”

• c: người kia phản hồi tích cực → “You definitely should!”

Question 15 – C. a – c – b – d

• a: hỏi về việc đọc sách

• c: trả lời và đánh giá sách rất hay

• b: người kia muốn đọc tiếp theo

• d: đề nghị phản hồi sau khi đọc xong

Question 16 – C. b – a – c – d

• b: “Yes, I’ve already bought tickets...” hỏi gốc về concert → phù hợp với ngữ cảnh hồi tưởng

• a: “Yes, I’ve already bought tickets...” → trả lời câu hỏi

• c: “Not yet, but I’m planning to.” 

• d: kết thúc bằng đề nghị cùng đi

Question 17 – B. a – c – d – b

• a: hỏi cách học

• c: trả lời và đưa ra hiệu quả

• d: nhận xét tích cực

• b: mô tả phương pháp cụ thể

Question 18 – B. It helps individuals navigate complex information and make sound decisions
→ Câu này tổng kết vai trò chính của critical thinking trong đoạn mở đầu.

Question 19 – C. This habit encourages deeper understanding and stronger conclusions
→ Nối tiếp nội dung về việc questioning assumptions → thói quen này dẫn đến hiểu biết sâu hơn.

Question 20 – D. This ability is highly valued across industries and professions
→ Sau khi nói đến giải quyết vấn đề và sáng tạo, câu D là tóm kết đúng ý toàn đoạn.

Question 21 – A. As a result, students may graduate without strong critical thinking abilities
→ Đoạn nêu rõ việc thiếu dạy kỹ năng này khiến học sinh thiếu khả năng tư duy → A đúng.

Question 22 – C. Developing critical thinking will help individuals thrive in the digital age
→ Ý toàn đoạn: nhu cầu tư duy phản biện ngày càng tăng → C phù hợp nhất.

Question 23 – C
→ Cả bài nói về xu hướng remote work (làm việc từ xa), những lợi ích, khó khăn và tương lai của nó → C là chủ đề bao quát nhất.

Question 24 – C
→ Đoạn 2: “Employees can often choose their working hours...” → đây là sự linh hoạt về giờ làm việc → C đúng.

Question 25 – A
→ "Flexibility" = khả năng thay đổi dễ dàng → gần nghĩa nhất là adaptability (tính thích nghi).

Question 26 – C
→ Đoạn 3: các thách thức được nêu là: cô lập, thiếu tương tác, giảm sáng tạo, không gian làm việc không phù hợp.
→ Không nhắc đến “difficulty in focusing on tasks” → C đúng.

Question 27 – B
→ “Here to stay” = sẽ tiếp tục tồn tại, không phải xu hướng tạm thời → B đúng.

Question 28 – C
→ Đoạn 4: “...hybrid models, allowing employees to split their time between home and the office.” → đúng nghĩa C.

Question 29 – D
→ Dòng cuối: “With the right support and communication strategies...” → hiệu quả của làm việc từ xa phụ thuộc vào công nghệ và giao tiếp → D là suy luận hợp lý.

Question 30 – B
→ Câu mở đầu đoạn 5: “...must adapt to this new work environment.” → cả công ty và nhân viên cần thích nghi → B là tóm tắt chuẩn nhất.

Question 31 – B
→ Cả bài nói về tác động của AI đối với công việc hiện tại và tương lai, cách thích nghi → B đúng.

Question 32 – B
→ Đoạn 1: “AI is automating repetitive tasks...” → tức là AI đang thực hiện công việc lặp đi lặp lại, nên B là đúng.

Question 33 – C
→ “Transforming” = thay đổi hoàn toàn, làm biến đổi → changing là đồng nghĩa gần nhất.

Question 34 – A
→ Đoạn 2: AI sẽ thay thế các công việc đơn điệu, nhưng sáng tạo, giải quyết vấn đề, trí tuệ cảm xúc thì khó thay thế → A đúng.

Question 35 – C
→ Đoạn 3: để thích nghi, cần phát triển kỹ năng tư duy phản biện, thích nghi, hiểu biết kỹ thuật số → C đúng.

Question 36 – A
→ “Lifelong learning” = học suốt đời → nghĩa là học tập trong suốt cuộc đời → A đúng.

Question 37 – B
→ Đoạn 4: chính phủ và giáo dục cần hỗ trợ người lao động chuyển đổi công việc mới, tức là cung cấp đào tạo và hỗ trợ → B đúng.

Question 38 – B
→ “Resilient” = có khả năng phục hồi, thích nghi với thay đổi → đồng nghĩa với adaptable.

Question 39 – C
→ Từ nội dung bài: công nghệ thay đổi nhanh → người lao động cần liên tục cập nhật kỹ năng → C là suy luận hợp lý.

Question 40 – B
→ Tóm gọn nội dung chính: AI sẽ thay đổi công việc, con người cần thích nghi và hợp tác cùng AI → B là đúng nhất.

Đề số 3

Question 1 – A. daily
→ “Daily routine” là cụm từ phổ biến và đúng ngữ cảnh (thói quen hằng ngày).

Question 2 – B. organic
→ “Organic coffee beans” = cà phê hữu cơ, phù hợp với ý nhấn mạnh chất lượng và bền vững.

Question 3 – B. atmosphere
→ “Welcoming atmosphere” = không gian thân thiện → đúng văn cảnh miêu tả quán cà phê.

Question 4 – D. develop
→ “Coffee culture continues to develop” → phát triển theo thời gian.

Question 5 – A. explore
→ “Explore and enjoy” → khám phá và thưởng thức là cụm thường gặp trong văn phong quảng bá.

Question 6 – D. savor
→ “Savor the experience” = thưởng thức trải nghiệm → phù hợp ngữ cảnh thư giãn uống cà phê.

Question 7 – C. improve
→ “Improve your understanding of grammar” → cụm thông dụng.

Question 8 – B. increases
→ Đọc giúp phát triển trí tưởng tượng → “increases creativity”.

Question 9 – A. lower
→ Người hay đọc sách có mức độ lo âu và trầm cảm thấp hơn.

Question 10 – D. essential
→ “...reading is not just entertaining — it is essential...” → mang nghĩa thiết yếu.

Question 11 – B. mix
→ “Mix different genres” = đọc nhiều thể loại → giúp không bị nhàm chán.

Question 12 – C. shared
→ Câu kết nói đến việc chia sẻ sách với bạn bè → “shared with others” là đúng ngữ pháp và ý nghĩa.

Question 13 – Đáp án: B (a – c – b – d)

• a: Mở đầu lời mời đi chơi cuối tuần.

• c: Trả lời là rảnh và hỏi lại.

• b: Đưa ra kế hoạch đi triển lãm.

• d: Đồng ý và hỏi thời gian hẹn.

Question 14 – Đáp án: C (c – b – a – e – d)

• c: Hỏi về phim mới.

• b: Phản hồi: chưa nghe, hỏi lại nội dung.

• a: Trả lời mô tả phim (science-fiction).

• e: Thể hiện hứng thú và đề nghị đi xem.

• d: Chốt lại bằng việc đặt vé.

Question 15 – Đáp án: B (b – a – d – c)

• b: Nêu ý định học nấu ăn.

• a: Hỏi muốn học món gì.

• d: Trả lời: muốn học món Ý.

• c: Phản hồi tích cực về món Ý.

Question 16 – Đáp án: C (b – d – a – c)

• b: Hỏi cách giữ dáng.

• d: Trả lời: đi bộ ba lần/tuần.

• a: Phản ứng tích cực, hỏi thêm về tập gym.

• c: Trả lời: có đi lớp yoga cuối tuần.

Question 17 – Đáp án: A (d – a – e – b – c)

• d: Hỏi đã làm xong bài nhóm chưa.

• a: Trả lời: gần xong, còn sửa báo cáo.

• e: Hỏi có cần giúp không.

• b: Nhờ kiểm tra ngữ pháp.

• c: Đồng ý giúp và hẹn làm buổi chiều.

Question 18 – A.
→ Câu nối cho đoạn 1, nhấn mạnh sự phát triển của học trực tuyến bằng ví dụ cụ thể: nhiều trường đại học danh tiếngđã mở chương trình online.

Question 19 – C.
→ Bổ sung thêm lợi ích: không giới hạn địa lý, chỉ cần internet là có thể học ở mọi nơi.

Question 20 – B.
→ Nói về sự đa dạng của khóa học, câu này bổ sung rằng nhiều nền tảng cung cấp khóa học miễn phí hoặc giá rẻ.

Question 21 – D.
→ Nêu thách thức: học online thiếu cấu trúc → học sinh cần tự giác và có kỷ luật.

Question 22 – C.
→ Nhắc đến tương lai công nghệ → các công nghệ mới sẽ giúp giáo dục tiếp cận dễ dàng hơn.

Question 23 – B.
→ Toàn bài mô tả nhiều lợi ích của âm nhạc về tinh thần, thể chất và xã hội.

Question 24 – C.
→ Đoạn 2: âm nhạc giúp giảm đau và phục hồi nhanh hơn trong bệnh viện.

Question 25 – B.
→ “Boost” = cải thiện, tương đương với “improve”.

Question 26 – C.
→ Đoạn 3: “playing an instrument” là hoạt động kích thích não bộ.

Question 27 – B.
→ Đoạn 4 nói về hoạt động cộng đồng như hòa nhạc, hợp xướng → âm nhạc giúp kết nối xã hội.

Question 28 – C.
→ Đoạn 3 nói về cognitive performance → tập trung, trí nhớ, sáng tạo.

Question 29 – B.
→ “Fosters creativity” = thúc đẩy, khuyến khích sáng tạo.

Question 30 – A.
→ Tóm lại toàn bài: âm nhạc mang lại lợi ích toàn diện về sức khỏe tinh thần, thể chất, và xã hội.

Question 31 – B. After sentence 1

→ Câu cần chèn mở rộng cho “the rise of remote work” và làm rõ tác động của xu hướng này → đặt sau câu 1 là hợp lý nhất.

Question 32 – B. uses technology effectively

→ “Leverage technology” nghĩa là tận dụng công nghệ một cách hiệu quả.

Question 33 – B. digital nomads

→ “They travel frequently...” → Chủ ngữ là digital nomads, được nhắc trước đó.

Question 34 – C. Locating suitable co-working spaces

→ Co-working spaces được nêu là giải pháp hỗ trợ, không phải khó khăn.

Question 35 – B. Digital nomads must manage practical challenges and benefit from personal growth

→ Đoạn 3 nói đến các thách thức thực tế (visa, tài chính...) và phần thưởng như trưởng thành cá nhân, kết nối toàn cầu.

Question 36 – B. flexibility

→ “Resilience” = khả năng phục hồi/thích nghi linh hoạt → gần nghĩa với flexibility.

Question 37 – B. Develop strong community support and infrastructure for remote workers

→ Đoạn 4: các thành phố muốn thu hút digital nomads cần đầu tư vào cơ sở hạ tầng và cộng đồng hỗ trợ.

Question 38 – C. Digital nomadism illustrates changing trends in the modern workforce

→ Cả bài là minh chứng cho sự thay đổi trong cách con người làm việc hiện đại.

Question 39 – C. Paragraph 3

→ Đề cập đến việc “adapting to new environments” khi nói về các thách thức thực tế của digital nomads.

Question 40 – B. Digital nomadism offers flexibility and opportunity but requires careful planning and adaptability

→ Toàn bài cho thấy ưu điểm (linh hoạt, khám phá...) nhưng cũng nhấn mạnh cần chuẩn bị và thích nghi tốt.

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