Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 có đáp án chi tiết (2025)

Bên cạnh việc ôn tập lý thuyết và làm bài tập, luyện giải đề thi mẫu là phương pháp hiệu quả giúp học sinh lớp 6 củng cố kiến thức, nâng cao kỹ năng làm bài và chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi cuối học kỳ 2. Nhằm hỗ trợ học sinh học tập theo đúng định hướng chương trình SGK Tiếng Anh 6 Global Success (Bộ GD&ĐT), ZIM đã biên soạn 3 đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 6 học kỳ 2 có đáp án chi tiết.

Bộ đề được thiết kế bám sát cấu trúc đề thi thực tế, bao quát các chủ điểm ngữ pháp, từ vựng và kỹ năng nghe – nói – đọc – viết theo chương trình Global Success, giúp học sinh ôn tập có trọng tâm và đạt kết quả cao.

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 6 học kì 2 - Đề số 1

PART 1. LISTENING

I. Listen to Sarah talking about a robot. Choose the correct answer A, B, or C. (1.25 points)

1. What does Sarah talk about?

A. A washing machine
B. A cleaning robot
C. A dishwasher

2. When does Sarah usually turn on the cleaning robot?

A. In the morning
B. After lunch
C. After dinner

3. Is it easy to use the robot?

A. Yes
B. No
C. No information

4. What does the cleaning robot do?

A. It cleans windows.
B. It vacuums the floors.
C. It washes dishes.

5. Why does Sarah like the cleaning robot?

A. It helps her relax.
B. It works very quickly.
C. It is cheap.

II. Listen to a girl talking about the city where she lives and decide whether the following sentences are TRUE or FALSE. (1 point)

1. Her city is well-known for its beaches. 

2. Dragon Bridge is not very famous. 

3. Pho is a delicious food in Da Nang. 

4. The weather in Da Nang is hot in autumn.

PART 2. LANGUAGE

I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). (2.5 points)

1. Choose the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

A. marathon
B. think
C. than
D. healthy

2. Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the others.

A. cartoon
B. comedy
C. reduce
D. location

3. “_________ did you go to Kate’s house yesterday?” - “I went by bus.”

A. What
B. How
C. Where
D. When

4. It is important to wear __________ when you ride a bike.

A. a helmet
B. goggles
C. a hat
D. a coat

5. He will _________ in the swimming competition next month.

A. view
B. rent
C. compete
D. reduce

6. Can I borrow your suitcase for a few days? ______ is too small.

A. My
B. I
C. Mine
D. Yours

7. I didn’t ________ to Nha Trang with my parents because I had an important exam that day.

A. travelled
B. to travel
C. travel
D. travelling

8. The students pick up _________ around the schoolyard after lunch.

A. flowers
B. rubbish
C. tip
D. appliance

9. We will __________ to the beach if we are free tomorrow.

A. going
B. goes
C. went
D. go

10. She is very _________. She can play badminton and basketball very well.

A. sporty
B. educational
C. crowded
D. cute

PART 3. READING

I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each blank in the following passage. (1.25 points)

Go green with us

Protecting the environment is very important for our planet. You can start by making small changes at home. For example, turn off the lights when you don’t need them, 1. ___________ recycle old papers and bottles. If everyone does this, it might 2. _______ reduce waste. Bring 3. _________ reusable bag when you go shopping to avoid using plastic bags. Also, try to repair things instead 4. __________ throwing them away. Finally, remember to 5. __________ items like glass jars or old boxes instead of buying new ones. Together, we can make a big difference!

II. Read the passage and answer the following questions. (1 point)

Basketball is one of the most popular sports in the world, enjoyed by millions of players and fans. It was invented in 1891 by Dr. James Naismith, a physical education teacher in the United States. He wanted to create a new game for his students to play indoors during the winter. There are two teams in a game, and each team has five players on the court. The players try to score points by throwing the ball into the opposing team’s hoop, which is set at a height of 10 feet. A basketball game usually lasts 40 minutes, divided into two halves or four quarters, depending on the league or competition.

Players need to be fast, strong, and skilled because the game requires a lot of running, jumping, and teamwork. Over the years, basketball has become a global sport, with professional leagues in many countries. Many people enjoy watching basketball because it is exciting, fast-paced, and full of action. In the United States, the NBA is the most famous basketball league, featuring legendary players like Michael Jordan, LeBron James, and Stephen Curry. Famous teams like the Los Angeles Lakers and the Golden State Warriors have millions of fans worldwide.

1. When was basketball invented?
   _______________________________

2. Why did the physical education teacher invent basketball? 
   _______________________________

3. How many players are on the court for each team? 
   _______________________________

4. Is basketball played only in the United States?
   _______________________________

PART 4. WRITING

I. Arrange the given words to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)

1. you/ usually/ with/ when/ play/ Did/ you/ small/ dolls/ were/?
   _______________________________

2. the/ nice,/ is/ I/ If/ weather/ I/ walk/ will/ for/ go/ a 
   _______________________________

II. Rewrite the sentences so that they have the same meaning as the first one. (1.5 points)

1. My mum asked me to do my homework before 7 p.m. 
   → My mum said: “_______________________________.”

2. No student in my class is smarter than Helen. 
   → Helen _______________________________. 

3. Orange is my favourite colour. What is your favourite colour? (YOURS)
   → _______________________________?

III. Write a paragraph (40 - 60 words) about your TV-viewing habits. The following questions may help you. (1 point)

• How much do you like watching TV?

• How many hours a day do you watch TV?

• When do you watch TV the most?

• What TV programmes do you often watch?

Ôn tập thêm: Tổng hợp từ vựng tiếng Anh lớp 6 theo từng Unit - Global Success

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 6 học kì 2 - Đề số 2

PART 1. LISTENING

I. Listen to someone talking about her favourite TV show. Choose the correct answer A, B, or C. (1.25 points)

1. What is The Great Baking Challenge about?

A. Painting competitions
B. Baking competitions
C. Dancing competitions

2. When is the show on?

A. Saturday at 8 p.m
B. Sunday at 7 p.m
C. Saturday at 7 p.m

3. How long does the show last?

A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 2 hours

4. What do the judges sometimes do?

A. Sing songs
B. Bake cakes themselves
C. Give funny comments

5. What is Sarah’s favorite part of the show?

A. The beginning of the show
B. The judges’ comments
C. The final round of the show

II. Listen to a girl Anna talking to a boy Tom about their favorite athletes and decide whether the following sentences are TRUE or FALSE. (1 point)

1. Tom’s favorite athlete is Cristiano Ronaldo.

2. Anna knows Cristiano Ronaldo. 

3. Anna likes a football player. 

4. Tom says Ronaldo is lazy on the field. 

PART 2. LANGUAGE

I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). (2.5 points)

1. Choose the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

A. chess
B. exercise
C. travel
D. competitive

2. Choose the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

A. hour
B. tower
C. around
D. boat

3. My mother puts our clothes in the ____________ every morning.

A. washing machine
B. electric cooker
C. dishwasher
D. recycling bin

4. He has ___ car in our neighborhood.

A. fast
B. faster
C. the fastest
D. the faster

5. We should all go _________ to help protect the environment.

A. black
B. green
C. pink
D. yellow

6. We visited _________ Eiffel Tower during our trip to Paris last summer, and it was amazing.

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. x

7. She needs to __________ her shirt before the meeting.

A. wrap
B. reuse
C. repair
D. iron

8. She wants to buy a new dress, _________ she doesn't have enough money.

A. and
B. but
C. so
D. or

9. My bike is _________ so I have to take a taxi.

A. useful
B. clever
C. helpful
D. broken

10. _________ did you see at the party last night?

A. Who
B. Where
C. How
D. When

PART 3. READING 

I. Read the letter and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to fill in the blanks. (1.25 points)

Dear Grandma and Grandpa,

Sydney is incredible! The 1. __________ here is warm and sunny every day! Our hotel is lovely, with a beautiful view of the harbor and a cozy café. Yesterday, Mum, Dad, and I took a boat ride on the Sydney Harbour. My parents wore their sun hats, and I wore 2. __________. We 3. ___________ the Sydney Opera House first. What 4. ___________ amazing place! Dad loved it. He said, "The architecture here is 5. __________ unique." After that, we had fish and chips at a local restaurant. Everything is so delightful!

Wish you were here!

Love, Emma

II. Read the passage and choose the correct answers (A, B, C, or D) based on the information in the paragraph. (1 point)

Houses of the future will be very different from houses today. They will be designed to be eco-friendly and use renewable energy, such as solar and wind power. Many future homes will have smart technology. It allows people to control lights, temperature, and security systems using their phones or voice commands. These houses will also include special features like gardens on the roof and walls to grow plants and vegetables. Inside, there will be robots to help with daily tasks, such as cleaning and cooking. Future houses will be comfortable, efficient, and better for the environment, making life easier and more sustainable for everyone.

1. What type of energy will future houses use?

A. Coal and gas
B. Nuclear power
C. Solar and wind power
D. Oil and diesel

2. What doesn’t technology help people control in their homes?

A. lights
B. temperature
C. security system
D. phones

3. What special feature might future houses have?

A. Roof gardens for growing plants
B. Swimming pools on every floor
C. Underground parking for cars
D. Elevators in all rooms

4. What is one purpose of future houses?

A. To save space in cities
B. To make life easier and more sustainable
C. To look more expensive
D. To be bigger and taller

PART 4. WRITING

I. Arrange the given words to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)

1. wanted/ beach,/ go/ She/ the/ to/ it/ but/ to/ rain/ started/ to/.
   _______________________________

2. watched/ movie/ He/ with/ a/ family/ last/ his/ night.
   _______________________________

II. Rewrite the sentences so that they have the same meaning as the first one. (1.5 points)

1. We cut down many trees in the forests. There are more floods.
   → If _______________________________. 

2. No bridge in Asia is longer than the Dan Duong Bridge.
   → The Dan Duong Bridge _______________________________. 

3. This is my school’s address. What is your school’s address? (YOURS)
   → _______________________________. 

III. Write a paragraph (40 - 60 words) about your favourite sport. The following questions may help you. (1 point)

• What sport is it?

• How many teams/ players are there in a game? 

• How often do you play it? 

• Why do you like this sport?

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 6 học kì 2 - Đề số 3

PART 1. LISTENING

I. Listen to a student talking about a competition. Fill in the blanks with the words you hear. (1.25 points)

I want to tell you about the green competition I joined last week. The competition was all about living a greener life and protecting the environment. We had to do different tasks, like 1. _________ old items, saving 2. _________, and planting trees. My favorite task was making a birdhouse from used wood. It was fun and also 3. __________ for nature. We also learned about ways to 4. _________ waste, like bringing reusable bags when shopping and using metal water bottles instead of plastic ones. I won 5. __________ prize. I felt so proud because I worked hard and learned many new things. 

II. Listen to two students talking about a football match. Choose the correct answers (A, B, C, or D). (1 point)

1. Which teams played in the match?

A. Jack’s school and Greenfield High
B. Emma’s school and Greenfield High
C. Jack’s school and Riverside High

2. How many goals did David score?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three

3. Which team won the match?

A. Jack’s school
B. Greenfield High
C. No team won

4. What was the final score?

A. 1-1
B. 2-0
C. 2-1

PART 2. LANGUAGE

I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). (2.5 points)

1. Choose the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

A. there
B. nothing
C. throw
D. tooth

2. Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the others.

A. farmer
B. busy
C. homework
D. compete

3. The washing machine broke, so we had to _________ the washing by hand.

A. do
B. make
C. get
D. take

4. Yesterday, it was sunny, but they _________ their clothes outside in the sun.

A. didn’t dry
B. didn’t dried
C. don’t dry
D. dried

5. She switched to the VTV1 _________ to watch the news.

A. viewer
B. programme
C. channel
D. live

6. She wanted to go to the park, __________ she had to finish her homework first.

A. and
B. but
C. so
D. or

7. She asked her neighbor to look ________ her plants while she was on vacation.

A. before
B. after
C. at
D. up

8. It __________ rain tomorrow, so you should take an umbrella.

A. should
B. can
C. does
D. might

9. If they finish the project on time, the boss __________ happy.

A. is
B. are
C. will be
D. was

10. They compared the _________ of different laptops before buying one.

A. score
B. height
C. age
D. price

PART 3. READING

I. Read the letter and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to fill in the blanks. (1.25 points)

Last night, I watched a TV show called Amazing Nature. It is a program that teaches people about animals and the environment. The show 1. _______ at 8 PM every Friday, and it is very 2. _________. In the latest episode, they showed how elephants live in the wild. It was so 3. ___________ to learn that elephants live in large groups to stay safe. The host explained that we should protect animals and 4. _________ habitats. The show also suggested simple actions, like using reusable bags instead of plastic ones, to help the environment. I can’t wait to 5. __________ the next episode!"

II. Read the following passage and decide whether each statement is TRUE or FALSE. (1 point)

There is a new robot designed to help students with their studies. The robot is called EduBot, and it can explain difficult subjects like math and science in a simple way. EduBot can answer questions, give examples, and even help students solve problems step by step. It also speaks many languages, so it can help students from different countries. The robot is small and easy to use, and students can keep it on their desks while studying. Many schools are already using EduBot in classrooms to make learning more fun and interactive. Teachers say it is a great tool to support students, especially when they need extra help.

1. EduBot helps students with difficult subjects like math and science. 

2. EduBot can only speak one language. 

3. EduBot is too big to fit on a desk. 

4. Some schools are already using EduBot in classrooms.

PART 4. WRITING

I. Arrange the given words to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)

1. will/ I/ with/ you/ homework/ help/ your/ dinner/ after/.
   _______________________________

2. did/ choose/ you/ color/ that/ Why/ for/ room?/ your
   _______________________________

II. Rewrite the sentences so that they have the same meaning as the first one. (1.5 points)

1. You mustn’t walk on the grass in the park. 
   → Don’t _______________________________

2. I like reading comic books. My sister likes reading novels. (BUT)
   → _______________________________

3. Kate hopes to get a high score in the next exam. (WILL)
   → _______________________________

III. Write a paragraph (40 - 60 words) about a city in your country. The following questions may help you. (1 point)

• What city is it?

• What is the city like? (the people, the weather, the food,...)

• What can you see and do there?

Ôn tập thêm: Tổng hợp ngữ pháp tiếng Anh lớp 6

Đáp án

Đề số 1

PART 1. LISTENING

I. 

Transcript:

Hi, I’m Sarah, and today I want to talk about a new helper in my house – a cleaning robot! It’s a small machine that vacuums the floors for me. I usually turn it on after dinner, and it moves around the house, picking up dust and dirt. It’s very easy to use, and I don’t have to clean as often anymore. It saves me a lot of time. However, it doesn’t clean everything. For example, it can’t clean the windows or wash the dishes. Still, I think it’s amazing because it helps me focus on other things, like reading or relaxing. Do you have a robot like this at home?

1. B

2. C

3. A 

4. B

5. A 

II. 

Transcript:

Today, I want to tell you about my city, Da Nang, a beautiful city in Vietnam. Da Nang is famous for its beaches, like My Khe Beach, which is great for swimming and relaxing. The city also has a famous bridge called the Dragon Bridge. At night, the bridge lights up, and it looks amazing! There are many delicious foods to try in Da Nang, like mi Quang and banh xeo. The weather is usually warm, but it can be very hot in the summer. If you visit Da Nang, don’t forget to explore the Marble Mountains – they are very beautiful. I think Da Nang is a perfect place for a holiday!

1. TRUE

2. FALSE

3. FALSE

4. FALSE

PART 2. LANGUAGE

I.

1. C

2. B

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. C

7. C

8. B

9. D

10. A

PART 3. READING 

I. 

1. A

2. B

3. A

4. A

5. C

II. 

1. In 1891 

2. Because he wanted to create a new game for his students to play indoors during the winter.

3. Five

4. No, it isn’t. 

PART 4. WRITING

I. 

1. Did you usually play with dolls when you were small?

2. If the weather is nice, I will go for a walk. 

II. 

1. My mum said: “Do your homework before 7 p.m”

2. Helen is the smartest student in my class. 

3. Orange is my favourite colour. What is yours? 

III. 

Câu trả lời mẫu:

I really enjoy watching TV and usually spend about two hours a day watching it. I watch TV the most in the evenings after dinner with my older sister. My favorite programs are cooking shows and cartoons. Watching TV is a great way to relax and learn new things.

Đề số 2

PART 1. LISTENING

I. 

Transcript:

Hi, everyone! Let me tell you about my favorite TV show, The Great Baking Challenge. It’s a competition where people bake cakes, cookies, and bread to win prizes. The show is on every Sunday evening at 7 PM, and it lasts for one hour. I love watching it because the bakers are very talented, and their desserts look delicious. Sometimes, the judges give funny comments, which makes the show even more entertaining. My favorite part is the final round, where the bakers create amazing cakes with unique designs. If you like cooking or baking, you should definitely watch this show!

1. B

2. B

3. B

4. C

5. C

II. 

Transcript:

Anna: Hi, Tom! Who’s your favorite athlete?

Tom: Hi, Anna! My favorite is Cristiano Ronaldo. He’s an amazing football player, and I love watching him play for Portugal.

Anna: Oh, I know him! He’s really talented. I like Serena Williams. She’s an incredible tennis player.

Tom: Serena is great! I heard she has won many Grand Slam titles.

Anna: That’s right. She’s so strong and inspiring. Why do you like Ronaldo?

Tom: He’s very hardworking and always gives his best on the field. Plus, he scores fantastic goals!

Anna: That’s true. Both of them are amazing athletes.

1. TRUE

2. FALSE

3. FALSE

4. FALSE

PART 2. LANGUAGE

I. 

1. C

2. D

3. A

4. C 

5. B

6. C 

7. D

8. B

9. D 

10. A

PART 3 READING

I. 

1. B

2. B

3. A

4. B

5. C

II. 

1. C 

2. D 

3. A

4. B

PART 4. WRITING

I. 

1. She wanted to go to the beach, but it started to rain.

2. He watched a movie with his family last night.

II. 

1. If we cut down many trees in the forest, there will be more floods. 

2. The Dan Duong Bridge is the longest bridge in Asia. 

3. This is my school’s address. What is yours?

III. 

Câu trả lời mẫu:

My favorite sport is soccer. It has two teams, and each team has eleven players. I play soccer every weekend with my friends at the local park. I like this sport because it's exciting. Moreover, it keeps me active and helps me make new friends. It's also fun to play together to score goals.

Đề số 3

PART 1. LISTENING

I. 

1. recycling 

2. water

3. helpful 

4. reduce 

5. second 

II. 

Transcript:

Jack: Hi, Emma! Did you watch the football match between my school and Greenfield High yesterday?

Emma: Yes, I did. It was so exciting!

Jack: I know, right? Your team played really well, especially in the second half.

Emma: Yeah, I think David was amazing. He scored two goals!

Jack: He’s such a great player. The goalkeeper also did a good job. He stopped some tough shots from the other team.

Emma: True! But Greenfield High was strong too. They scored one goal in the first half.

Jack: I’m glad my school’s team won, though. The final score was 2-1. What a great game!

Emma: I hope we can watch another match like that soon!

1. A 

2. B

3. A

4. C 

PART 2. LANGUAGE

I. 

1. A 

2. D 

3. A 

4. A

5. C 

6. B

7. B

8. D 

9. C

10. D

PART 3. READING

I. 

1. A

2. D

3. B

4. A

5. B

II. 

1. TRUE

2. FALSE

3. FALSE

4. TRUE

PART 4. WRITING

I. 

1. I will help you with your homework after dinner.

2. Why did you choose that color for your room?

II. 

1. Don’t walk on the grass in the park. 

2. I like reading comic books, but my sister likes reading novels.

3. Kate hopes that she will get a high score in the next exam. 

III. 

Câu trả lời mẫu: 

Hanoi is the capital city of Vietnam. It is a busy and beautiful city. It has many old buildings and streets. The people in Hanoi are kind and helpful. The food, like pho and banh mi, is very tasty. Visitors can walk around the Old Quarter, see Hoan Kiem Lake, and visit famous places like the Temple of Literature.

Luyện tập thêm:

• Bài tập viết lại câu tiếng Anh lớp 6 có đáp án chi tiết

• Bài tập phát âm lớp 6 có đáp án

• Bài tập đọc hiểu tiếng Anh lớp 6 thường gặp có đáp án

Tổng kết

Bài viết đã giới thiệu đến học sinh ba đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 6 học kì 2 có đáp án, được biên soạn bám sát nội dung kiến thức trong sách giáo khoa Global Success. Hy vọng đây sẽ là nguồn tài liệu ôn tập hữu ích, giúp các em củng cố kiến thức và chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi sắp tới.

Ngoài ra, nếu học sinh có bất kỳ thắc mắc nào trong quá trình ôn tập, các em có thể tham gia diễn đàn ZIM Helper để được hỗ trợ. Phụ huynh cũng có thể tham khảo khóa học IELTS Junior – chương trình phù hợp với học sinh bậc trung học, giúp các em làm quen và nâng cao kỹ năng tiếng Anh học thuật.