Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12 – Các chủ điểm kiến thức nâng cao

Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12 là thử thách đánh giá năng lực ngôn ngữ và mở ra cơ hội học tập cho học sinh. Bài viết sẽ giới thiệu các chủ điểm kiến thức thường gặp, chiến lược xử lý dạng bài khó, cùng đề thi mẫu hỗ trợ học sinh và giáo viên chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi.

Những chủ điểm kiến thức thường gặp trong đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12

Ngữ pháp (Grammar)

Ngữ pháp là phần cốt lõi trong đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh, với các câu hỏi xoay quanh những chủ điểm nâng cao như:

• Câu điều kiện và câu giả định: Bao gồm các loại câu điều kiện 1, 2, 3, câu điều kiện hỗn hợp và các cấu trúc giả định như wish, if only, subjunctive.

• Câu bị động nâng cao: Cấu trúc bị động của động từ khuyết thiếu và các dạng have/get something done, it is said that…

• Mệnh đề quan hệ và danh từ: Các dạng reduced relative clauses, reported speech, và các mệnh đề danh từ phức tạp.

• Sự hòa hợp giữa chủ ngữ và động từ nâng cao: Kiểm tra các cụm từ như either/or, a number of, và các danh từ đặc biệt như news, politics.

• Sự đảo ngữ: Cấu trúc đảo ngữ với các từ phủ định (never, seldom) và đảo ngữ trong câu điều kiện.

• Cấu trúc so sánh nâng cao: Các dạng như the more…the more, no sooner…than, và so sánh kép.

• Cấu trúc nhấn mạnh: Các dạng như It is/was…that và What…is để làm nổi bật ý trong câu.

Từ vựng và ngữ cảnh (Lexico grammar)

Các câu hỏi về từ vựng trong đề thi học sinh giỏi thường tập trung vào những nội dung sau:

• Collocations và phrasal verbs: Đây là phần quan trọng, yêu cầu học sinh nắm chắc những collocations thông dụng và các phrasal verbs nâng cao.

• Idioms và expressions: Đề thi học sinh giỏi thường kiểm tra khả năng hiểu nghĩa và cách sử dụng các thành ngữ tiếng Anh. Các idioms phổ biến, cấu trúc diễn đạt phức tạp sẽ thường xuất hiện trong phần này.

• Word formation: Đề thi yêu cầu học sinh nắm chắc cách sử dụng tiền tố và hậu tố để biến đổi từ loại, cũng như cách dùng từ chính xác trong các ngữ cảnh khác nhau.

Chiến lược làm các dạng bài khó trong đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12

Đề thi học sinh giỏi thường yêu cầu tư duy và kỹ năng ngôn ngữ nâng cao. Dưới đây là một số dạng bài và chiến lược làm bài hiệu quả:

Đọc hiểu (Reading comprehension)

Dạng đọc hiểu kiểm tra khả năng suy luận sâu. Để làm tốt phần này:

• Phân tích câu hỏi và từ khóa: Đọc kỹ câu hỏi, nhận diện từ khóa chính.

• Đọc quét và tìm: Đọc lướt nội dung chính (skimming) và xác định thông tin cụ thể (scanning).

• Suy luận từ ngữ cảnh: Dùng ngữ cảnh để hiểu ý sâu và đưa ra kết luận chính xác.

Điền từ (Multiple choice cloze / Word choice)

Phần này yêu cầu vốn từ vựng và khả năng chọn từ đúng ngữ cảnh. Cách làm:

• Đọc hiểu toàn câu: Nắm rõ ngữ cảnh của câu để chọn từ phù hợp.

• Nhận diện collocations và idioms: Chọn từ phù hợp với collocations và các cụm từ cố định.

Đọc thêm: Nâng cao kỹ năng đọc hiểu qua ngữ pháp: Phương Pháp Contextualization & phân tích câu

Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án

Section A. Listening (50pts)

Part 1. For questions 1 – 5, listen to a radio report about renewable energy advancements and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer.

Questions:

1. What type of renewable energy has grown rapidly?
   ________________________________________________

2. What achievement did Denmark recently celebrate?
   ________________________________________________

3. What group is especially supportive of renewable energy?
   ________________________________________________

4. What word is ‘renewable energy’ becoming synonymous with?
   ________________________________________________

5. What early invention was used to harness renewable energy?
   ________________________________________________

Part 2. For questions 6 – 15, listen to a piece of news about sustainable city technology and complete the following sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken from the recording in each space.

Questions:

6. Smart sensors monitor air quality for 6. ___________________________.

7. Autonomous buses are being tested in 7. ___________________________.

8. The buses act as 8. ___________________________ for public transport.

9. In EcoWorld, players analyze 9. ___________________________.

10. With 10. ___________________________, cities can reduce their waste.

11. Players' feedback is used to improve 11. ___________________________.

12. New technologies help us understand our 12. ___________________________.

13. Current technology lacks insight into 13. ___________________________ on infrastructure.

14. UrbanSense monitors building structures and 14. ___________________________.

15. Urban planners need technology that can 15. ___________________________.

Part 3. For questions 16 – 20, listen to a talk by Dr. Helen Carter, a specialist in sustainable food production, discussing future trends in agriculture. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

Questions:

16. When discussing GM crops, Dr. Carter feels ____________.

    • A. optimistic about their ability to end food shortages

    • B. concerned by the limited research available

    • C. frustrated by inconsistent findings in studies

    • D. confident about their environmental impact

17. What does Dr. Carter suggest about organic foods?

    • A. People misunderstand their nutritional value.

    • B. They are widely available at a low cost.

    • C. They are not preferred by the general public.

    • D. They will soon become more affordable.

18. What is Dr. Carter’s opinion on ‘vertical farming’?

    • A. It is a cost-effective solution.

    • B. It can reduce food transportation needs.

    • C. It has achieved large-scale application.

    • D. It will replace traditional farming soon.

19. Dr. Carter believes that nanotechnology in food production will ____________.

    • A. make food labeling simpler

    • B. reduce concerns about safety

    • C. increase confusion for consumers

    • D. limit food storage time

20. According to Dr. Carter, self-sufficiency in food production is only realistic for people who ____________.

    • A. live in urban areas

    • B. are highly self-motivated

    • C. have the financial resources

    • D. have access to government support

Part 4. For questions 21 – 25, listen to a radio discussion on technology in sports medicine and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

Questions:

21. The speaker believes that the use of cameras in sports medicine increases excitement.

22. He thinks cryotherapy helps athletes recover faster.

23. The speaker suggests that if all athletes can use advanced technology, it should be unrestricted.

24. The speaker believes some banned performance-enhancing practices should remain illegal.

25. He feels that there are enough restrictions on technology use in sports training.

Section B. Lexico-Grammar (30 points)

Part 1. For questions 1-20, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

1. Many teenagers are easily ________ by social media influencers and make decisions based on what they see online.

   • A. swayed

   • B. shaken

   • C. staggered

   • D. fluctuated

2. His latest book was ________ with such eloquence that readers were captivated from start to finish.

   • A. written

   • B. scripted

   • C. narrated

   • D. composed

3. Despite her friends’ efforts to dissuade her, she remains ________ on pursuing a career as an artist.

   • A. fixed

   • B. intent

   • C. constant

   • D. secure

4. The financial crisis led to many companies ________ drastic measures to stay afloat.

   • A. resorting to

   • B. heading for

   • C. adhering to

   • D. siding with

5. His remarkable achievements have put him ________ the top of his profession.

   • A. in

   • B. on

   • C. at

   • D. by

6. The committee members decided to ________ the proposal until further information could be obtained.

   • A. hold out

   • B. push on

   • C. shelve

   • D. put forth

7. The CEO was accused of trying to ________ his mistakes by blaming his staff for the company’s decline.

   • A. smooth over

   • B. hush up

   • C. gloss over

   • D. patch up

8. The speaker’s argument was ________ flawed, as it failed to consider the broader implications.

   • A. logically

   • B. inherently

   • C. fundamentally

   • D. decidedly

9. His latest invention promises to ________ the way we communicate by making it more efficient and intuitive.

   • A. enhance

   • B. transform

   • C. amend

   • D. modulate

10. ________ financial concerns, the project was given the green light by the board.

    • A. Nonetheless

    • B. Despite

    • C. Without

    • D. Although

11. The CEO assured his employees that the company was not ________ to a takeover.

    • A. adverse

    • B. prone

    • C. subject

    • D. susceptible

12. To ________ from the stress of work, she spends her weekends hiking in the mountains.

    • A. break out

    • B. blow off

    • C. wind down

    • D. cast aside

13. The government introduced new laws to ________ rising cases of cybercrime.

    • A. stave off

    • B. weed out

    • C. put down

    • D. back up

14. His criticism of the plan was so ________ that it left everyone in the meeting stunned.

    • A. overt

    • B. frank

    • C. scathing

    • D. blatant

15. The film director’s new project is ________ to receive multiple awards at international film festivals.

    • A. bound

    • B. fated

    • C. destined

    • D. liable

16. She’s not just knowledgeable; her expertise ________ a wide range of subjects.

    • A. traverses

    • B. spans

    • C. circulates

    • D. overflows

17. The professor’s lecture ________ all aspects of the subject, providing a comprehensive overview.

    • A. encompassed

    • B. enveloped

    • C. surrounded

    • D. overlapped

18. After months of intense preparation, the team finally ________ victory in the national competition.

    • A. clinched

    • B. conquered

    • C. seized

    • D. claimed

19. She decided to ________ some serious changes in her lifestyle to improve her health.

    • A. enforce

    • B. effect

    • C. implement

    • D. exert

20. In his resignation speech, he took ________ to rumors about his alleged misconduct.

    • A. exception

    • B. offense

    • C. displeasure

    • D. umbrage

Part 2. For questions 21-30, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. 0 has been done as an example.

THE PSYCHOLOGY OF LONELINESS

Loneliness is a complex emotional experience that has become increasingly (0. RECOGNIZE) recognized as a public health issue in recent years. While often considered merely a symptom of social (21. CONNECT) ____________, loneliness actually encompasses a range of feelings and psychological effects that may affect one's physical and mental well-being.

Studies show that the (22. INTENSE) ____________ of loneliness varies from person to person, with some individuals feeling acutely isolated even in a crowd, while others find solitude (23. COMFORT) ____________. Researchers have suggested that loneliness can be (24. EXACERBATE) ____________ by various external factors, such as a lack of supportive relationships, but internal factors like personality traits can also play a significant role.

Certain groups, such as the elderly and those with limited social circles, are often seen as more (25. SUSCEPTIBLE) ____________ to chronic loneliness. However, loneliness does not discriminate, and even those who are surrounded by family and friends can experience a profound sense of (26. DETACH) ____________ from others.

The impact of loneliness on health is becoming increasingly well-documented, with studies suggesting it can lead to (27. VASCULAR) ____________ problems, weakened immune function, and increased levels of stress hormones. In recent years, loneliness has even been referred to as an "epidemic," though some view this term as (28. HYPERBOLIC) ____________.

As awareness of the issue grows, interventions are being developed to help alleviate loneliness. These include promoting social (29. COHESIVE) ____________ and creating community programs that encourage regular interaction. Nevertheless, tackling loneliness is no easy task, as it requires both individual and societal (30. ENGAGE) ____________ to be truly effective.

Section C. Reading (60 points)

Part 1. For questions 1 – 10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

THE GREAT PACIFIC GARBAGE PATCH

The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is one of the largest collections of ocean plastic in the world, and it (1) ____________ in the North Pacific Ocean. This area is characterized by high concentrations of plastic waste and other debris that accumulate as a result of (2) ____________ currents, which trap the debris in a circular motion. Plastic waste in the ocean is particularly (3) ____________ because it doesn’t biodegrade like organic material; instead, it breaks into smaller and smaller pieces, known as microplastics, that can be ingested by marine life. These microplastics (4) ____________ up the food chain, potentially affecting not only sea creatures but also humans who consume seafood.

The garbage patch (5) ____________ environmental damage on a massive scale. Marine animals, such as sea turtles and birds, mistake the plastic for food and eat it, which can lead to injury, poisoning, or even death. Additionally, this pollution (6) ____________ the natural beauty of marine environments, turning once-pristine waters into floating garbage dumps. Despite the serious consequences, cleaning up the Great Pacific Garbage Patch is no easy (7) ____________. The patch is estimated to cover an area twice the size of Texas, and much of the debris is spread out over vast distances and at different depths.

Efforts to reduce the garbage patch often focus on decreasing plastic (8) ____________ in the first place. Advocates urge consumers and manufacturers to reduce, reuse, and recycle plastic products, as well as to (9) ____________ alternatives to single-use plastics. While organizations have started to develop technologies to remove the plastic from the ocean, these solutions face significant challenges and are unlikely to (10) ____________ the problem completely without a broader shift in global waste management practices.

Part 2. For questions 11 – 20, read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

THE RISE OF URBAN GARDENING

As urban areas continue to expand, many people are beginning to feel disconnected from nature. In response, urban gardening has become a popular (11) ________ for individuals looking to bring a touch of greenery into their daily lives. From small balconies to rooftop plots, urban residents are finding creative ways to (12) ________ nature within the concrete jungle.

The benefits of urban gardening are (13) ________. Not only does it provide a sense of tranquility, but it also encourages people to (14) ________ their own food, reducing their reliance on commercially grown produce. In addition, urban gardens (15) ________ a valuable habitat for pollinators, which are essential for plant reproduction and biodiversity.

Creating an urban garden, however, requires more than just enthusiasm. Limited space and soil quality can present significant (16) ________, and gardeners must carefully (17) ________ which plants will thrive in these confined environments. Additionally, issues like access to sunlight and water can (18) ________ the types of plants that can be successfully grown.

Despite these challenges, urban gardening has taken (19) ________ in cities around the world, and many communities have even established shared garden spaces where residents can cultivate plants together. These spaces offer people a chance to reconnect with nature, build community, and gain a deeper appreciation for the environment. Who knows, perhaps one day every city dweller will have a small green (20) ________ of their own.

Part 3. Read the following passage and answer questions 21 – 30.

THE HISTORY OF THE LIGHT BULB

A. The story of the light bulb is often associated with Thomas Edison, but its origins date back much earlier. The first electric light was created by Humphry Davy in 1802. Davy’s invention was known as the electric arc lamp, and although it was too bright and impractical for household use, it demonstrated the principle of producing light by passing an electric current through a material. Over the following decades, various inventors experimented with different materials and techniques to create a practical, long-lasting light source.

B. In 1841, British scientist Frederick de Moleyns patented a bulb-like design that contained platinum filament and produced light by heating the filament with an electric current. However, the high cost of platinum made this approach unsustainable. Another breakthrough came in 1854 when Heinrich Göbel, a German watchmaker, claimed to have produced a more efficient bulb using carbonized bamboo filaments. Though Göbel’s work was promising, it did not gain widespread recognition due to a lack of proper documentation.

C. The development of the modern incandescent bulb truly began in the 1870s with contributions from various inventors across the globe. In 1878, Joseph Swan, an English physicist, demonstrated a light bulb that used a carbonized paper filament. Shortly after, in 1879, Thomas Edison developed his version using a carbon filament that lasted longer than previous designs. Edison’s improvements made the light bulb practical for widespread use, and he patented his design in the United States. Edison’s success was largely due to his ability to commercialize the light bulb effectively.

D. In the early 20th century, incandescent bulbs continued to evolve. Tungsten filaments, introduced in 1904, replaced carbon as the preferred material due to their durability and higher melting point. This change extended the lifespan of light bulbs and made them more energy-efficient. The General Electric Company pioneered the use of tungsten filaments, and soon after, incandescent bulbs became a staple in households and industries worldwide.

E. Today, the traditional incandescent bulb is gradually being replaced by more energy-efficient lighting solutions, such as compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) and light-emitting diodes (LEDs). These new technologies use less power and last much longer than incandescent bulbs, reducing environmental impact. Governments in many countries have implemented policies to phase out incandescent bulbs to promote energy efficiency. Although the incandescent bulb is now largely obsolete, its impact on society and technological development remains significant.

For questions 21-25, choose the correct heading for sections A-E. There are THREE extra headings that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the spaces provided.

List of Headings

i. The introduction of alternative light sources

ii. Early discoveries in electric lighting

iii. The shift to energy-efficient lighting

iv. The impact of tungsten filaments

v. Edison’s commercialization of the light bulb

vi. Modern advancements in lighting technology

vii. Attempts to create an affordable light bulb

viii. Edison’s competition in the light bulb industry

Your answers:

21. Section A ______

22. Section B ______

23. Section C ______

24. Section D ______

25. Section E ______

For questions 26-30, decide whether the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage. Write in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

• YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer.

• NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer.

• NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.

26. The first electric light was created by Thomas Edison in the 19th century.

27. Frederick de Moleyns’ light bulb design used a carbon filament.

28. Heinrich Göbel’s invention became popular in his lifetime.

29. Tungsten filaments were introduced in the 20th century.

30. Governments around the world are encouraging the use of LEDs over incandescent bulbs.

Part 4. For questions 31 – 40, read an extract from an article on climate change adaptation and choose the answer A, B, C, or D which you think fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

ADAPTING TO A CHANGING CLIMATE

Climate change poses major global challenges, from rising sea levels to extreme weather. Nations are exploring adaptation strategies to reduce risks and boost resilience, shaped by local geography, economy, and society.

In agriculture, changing climate patterns affect crops. Some farmers adapt by planting drought-resistant varieties or shifting planting schedules, protecting food security but often requiring significant investment in technology and training.

Cities focus on infrastructure adaptation, redesigning buildings and drainage systems to withstand severe weather. Some coastal cities build sea walls or relocate communities to counter rising seas. Although costly, many governments see these as essential.

International cooperation plays a vital role in adaptation, especially for vulnerable developing nations. Wealthier countries and international organizations provide financial and technical support. Critics, however, argue that adaptation alone isn’t enough without reducing greenhouse emissions.

Yet, adaptation has limits. Some impacts, like rising sea levels threatening small islands, may be impossible to counter long-term. Without tackling climate change’s root causes, adaptation offers only a temporary reprieve.

Questions:

31. What is one aim of climate adaptation strategies mentioned in paragraph 1?

    • A. To prevent climate change from occurring

    • B. To ensure all countries can afford new technology

    • C. To reduce the risks associated with climate change

    • D. To create uniform adaptation plans for all nations

32. According to the text, how are some farmers adapting to climate change?

    • A. By abandoning traditional crops

    • B. By developing new technologies

    • C. By planting crops that require less water

    • D. By requesting financial assistance

33. The author mentions infrastructure projects in cities to highlight ________.

    • A. the economic opportunities created by climate change

    • B. the financial challenges of adaptation

    • C. the role of government in climate mitigation

    • D. the short-term nature of adaptation solutions

34. Where could the sentence "Such adaptation efforts can be lifesaving in areas prone to natural disasters." best be inserted?

    • A. after "help protect food security in the face of shifting weather patterns"

    • B. after "resilience. Cities around the world are redesigning buildings, roads, and drainage systems"

    • C. after "lack the resources to implement effective adaptation strategies"

    • D. after "small island nations face an existential threat from rising sea levels"

35. The author implies that wealthier countries are ________.

    • A. unwilling to share their resources

    • B. responsible for assisting vulnerable nations

    • C. the primary cause of climate impacts

    • D. committed to reducing greenhouse emissions

36. What limitation of climate adaptation is mentioned in the final paragraph?

    • A. Rising temperatures will make adaptation unnecessary

    • B. Some climate impacts cannot be managed by adaptation alone

    • C. Financial constraints prevent most adaptation efforts

    • D. Adaptation often leads to environmental damage

37. The word “them” in the final paragraph refers to ________.

    • A. scientists

    • B. temperatures

    • C. island nations

    • D. impacts

38. How are international organizations contributing to climate adaptation?

    • A. By enforcing adaptation policies

    • B. By educating developed nations

    • C. By providing funds and support to poorer countries

    • D. By building infrastructure in urban areas

39. What does the writer suggest about the future of small island nations?

    • A. They may eventually need to be evacuated

    • B. They have received sufficient support

    • C. They have managed to limit climate impact

    • D. They prioritize economic growth over adaptation

40. In the text as a whole, the writer’s main purpose is to ________.

    • A. outline the effectiveness and limitations of climate adaptation

    • B. advocate for increased funding for adaptation

    • C. argue that adaptation is more important than mitigation

    • D. criticize wealthy nations for lack of support

Part 5. The passage below consists of five paragraphs marked A, B, C, D, and E. For questions 41-50, read the passage and do the task that follows. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered provided. Each letter may be used more than once.

THE INFLUENCE OF LEONARDO DA VINCI

Over 500 years after his death, Leonardo da Vinci remains a highly influential figure, with his works and discoveries continuing to inspire.

A. Known as the "Renaissance Man," Leonardo excelled in art, engineering, and science. Born in 1452 in Vinci, Italy, he trained under artist Verrocchio, shaping his career. Though he achieved fame, Leonardo was secretive, leaving behind few completed works and encoded notebooks, which makes understanding his life challenging.

B. Leonardo’s groundbreaking work in anatomy was remarkable. His dissections and detailed anatomical sketches, though not entirely accurate, reflected a scientific approach that influenced future scientists.

C. Leonardo questioned accepted norms, inspiring designs for flying machines and advanced weaponry—many of which were never built due to technological limits of his time. His notebooks reveal a visionary, far ahead of his era.

D. During his life, Leonardo received both admiration and criticism. Known for abandoning projects, his scientific interests set him apart from typical artists. This unique blend of skills attracted admiration but also criticism for incomplete works.

E. Today, Leonardo’s legacy endures. His Mona Lisa and The Last Supper remain iconic, and his notebooks continue to provide insights. In a world of specialization, his broad talents are a timeless reminder of the value of creativity and curiosity.

In which paragraph is each of the following mentioned?

41. The respect and criticism Leonardo received from those around him

42. The relevance of Leonardo's interdisciplinary talents today

43. The writer’s interpretation of Leonardo’s legacy

44. An explanation for the lack of complete knowledge about Leonardo’s life

45. Leonardo’s in-depth studies in a particular field of science

46. The contrast between typical artists and Leonardo’s unique interests

47. Leonardo’s inventions that were not built due to technological limitations

48. The influence of Leonardo’s early training on his future success

49. How Leonardo’s works have come to be regarded over time

50. Leonardo’s way of challenging established ideas in his era

Section D. Writing (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be between 100 and 120 words long.

Passage:

With the rapid development of technology, artificial intelligence (AI) is becoming a prominent part of modern society, affecting nearly every industry. AI has transformed fields such as healthcare, finance, and manufacturing by streamlining processes, analyzing vast amounts of data, and even assisting with complex decision-making. Many people believe that AI has the potential to greatly improve productivity, enabling companies to optimize workflows and reduce human error.

However, AI also raises ethical and social concerns. One significant issue is the potential loss of jobs, as automation could replace certain roles traditionally held by humans, leading to unemployment in various sectors. Additionally, there are concerns about privacy and security, especially regarding how companies collect, store, and use personal data to train AI systems. Furthermore, some people worry that AI could reinforce existing biases, as algorithms learn from data that may reflect societal prejudices.

Despite these challenges, AI has proven to be a powerful tool that, if managed properly, could address pressing global issues. In healthcare, AI has been used to detect diseases at an early stage, improving patient outcomes and assisting with diagnostic accuracy. AI is also helping to tackle environmental problems by optimizing energy consumption and identifying patterns that could help combat climate change.

While AI has its limitations, it holds immense potential for positive change. Governments and organizations worldwide are working to create guidelines and ethical frameworks to ensure that AI is used responsibly and benefits society as a whole. Though challenges remain, the future of AI depends on striking a balance between harnessing its power for innovation and addressing the ethical implications of its widespread use.

PART 2: The chart shows the average number of hours each day that Chinese, American, Turkish and Brazilian tourists spent doing leisure activities while on holiday in Greece in August 2019.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant.

 Write at least 150 words.

Part 3. Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic.

Social media platforms have become highly influential in shaping public opinion. To prevent misinformation and protect users, governments should strictly regulate all content on social media.

Do you agree or disagree?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.

Tham khảo thêm: Tổng hợp bài mẫu IELTS Writing 2024

Đáp án

Section A. Listening

Part 1

1. Wind energy

2. Generating 50% from wind

3. Young environmental activists

4. Clean energy

5. Watermills

Part 2

6. emergency response

7. urban areas

8. public transport assistants

9. urban development models

10. smart waste management

11. urban planning systems

12. energy consumption

13. long-term impact

14. energy usage patterns

15. adjust dynamically

Part 3

16. C 

17. A 

18. B 

19. C 

20. C  

Part 4

21. F 

22. T

23. F

24. T

25. T.

Section B. Lexico-Grammar

Part 1

1. A

2. A

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. C

7. C

8. C

9. B

10. B

11. C

12. C

13. A

14. C

15. A

16. B

17. A

18. A

19. B

20. D

Part 2

21. disconnection

22. intensity

23. comforting

24. exacerbated

25. susceptible

26. detachment

27. cardiovascular

28. hyperbolic

29. cohesion

30. engagement

Section C. Reading

Part 1

1. lies

2. ocean

3. problematic

4. move

5. causes

6. mars

7. task

8. production

9. seek

10. solve

Part 2

11. A

12. A

13. C

14. B

15. A

16. D

17. B

18. A

19. D

20. B

Part 3

21. ii

22. vii

23. v

24. iv

25. iii

26. NO

27. NO

28. NOT GIVEN

29. YES

30. YES

Part 4

31. C

32. C

33. B

34. B

35. B

36. B

37. C

38. C

39. A

40. A

Part 5

41. D

42. E

43. E

44. A

45. B

46. D

47. C

48. A

49. E

50. C

Tổng kết

Kỳ thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12 đòi hỏi học sinh nắm chắc các chủ điểm ngữ pháp phức tạp, trường từ vựng nâng cao và kỹ năng xử lý các dạng bài khó như viết luận và đọc hiểu. Với đề thi và chiến lược ôn luyện đã trình bày, học sinh có thể tự tin chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi một cách hiệu quả.

Để nâng cao năng lực tiếng Anh theo yêu cầu, bạn có thể trải nghiệm khóa học OnDemand Class của Anh Ngữ ZIM. Chương trình dành cho học viên muốn học tiếng Anh một cách linh hoạt và cá nhân hóa. Bạn có thể chọn giờ học, nội dung học và giảng viên giảng dạy để chuẩn bị giờ học theo yêu cầu của bạn. Trải nghiệm lớp học ngay!