Tổng hợp 3 đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 12 học kì 1 Global Success

Tổng hợp bộ đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 12 học kì 1 có đáp án

Đề số 1

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

Question 2.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to identify the word that has a different primary stress position compared to the other three in each of the following questions.
Question 3.

Question 4.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the SYNONYM of the underlined word(s) in each of the subsequent questions.
Question 5. Even though he missed the deadline, he managed to save face by submitting a quality project.

Question 6. Even if the road ahead seems challenging, you must keep your chin up and stay positive.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the ANTONYM of the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. In her speech, she encouraged the audience to think outside the box when approaching problem-solving, rather than adhering to conventional methods.

Question 8. Despite the weather conditions, the team remained determined to complete the marathon, refusing to throw in the towel halfway through.

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the most suitable reply for each of the following conversations.

Question 9. Lisa and Tom are discussing their weekend plans.

Lisa: “I’m thinking of going on a hiking trip on Thursday.”
Tom: “____________________”

A. That sounds like a great idea!
B. I don’t like baking.
C. When will be the next Friday?
D. Are you free on Thursday?

Question 10. Rachel is telling her friend Mark about her recent vacation.

Rachel: “I just came back from a week in Paris!”
Mark: “____________________”

A. I’m so jealous!
B. That’s a long time.
C. My friend just told me about Milan.
D. That’s none of your business.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the underlined section that requires correction in each of the sentences below.

Question 11. Although she had studied hard, but she failed the exam.

Question 12. The committee has decided that they will met next week, which is a good news.

Question 13. Neither the teacher nor the students was ready for the presentation.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most appropriate answer for each of the following questions.

Question 14. After the meeting, she decided to _______ her ideas with the team to ensure everyone was on the same page.

Question 15. The teacher asked the students to _____ in their assignments by Friday.

Question 16. After a long day, I like to ____ down with a good book.

Question 17. ________, the project was successful, but it required a lot of effort from the entire team.

Question 18. The report that she submitted last week _______ highly praised by the manager during the meeting.

Question 19. After they _______ the movie, they decided to grab dinner at a nearby restaurant.

Question 20. Even though it _______ raining, they continued their picnic as planned.

Question 21. She couldn’t attend the meeting because she _______ an urgent appointment at the same time.

Question 22. The scientist, _______ research has contributed significantly to climate change, will be speaking at the conference next week.

Question 23. Despite the heavy rain, the festival was not _______ , and many people attended.

Question 24. After reviewing the proposal, the committee decided to _______ the decision until the next meeting for further discussion.

Question 25. After extensive research, the scientists published their findings ______ the impact of climate change ______ marine life.

Read the passage below and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the appropriate word or phrase that best fills each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

In recent years, the concept of green living has gained significant traction among individuals and communities worldwide. Green living refers to a lifestyle that aims to reduce one’s carbon footprint and promote sustainability. It encompasses various practices, from reducing waste to choosing energy-efficient appliances. One of the most effective ways to embrace green living is to (26) ________ reusable items instead of single-use products. For example, using cloth bags for shopping or stainless steel water bottles can (27) ________ a considerable reduction of plastic waste.

Additionally, green living involves making conscious choices about food. Opting for locally sourced produce not only supports local farmers but also minimizes transportation emissions. Many people are also (28) ________ their diets by incorporating more plant-based meals, which are generally more sustainable than meat-heavy diets. This shift not only benefits the environment but can also improve health outcomes.

To make a significant impact, it’s essential for everyone to (29) ________ community initiatives that promote sustainability, such as community gardens or recycling programs. Furthermore, understanding the importance of energy conservation is crucial. Simple actions like turning off lights when not in use can (30) ________ to lower energy bills and reduce overall energy consumption.

By adopting these practices, individuals can play a vital role in fostering a healthier planet for future generations.

Question 26.

Question 27.

Question 28.

Question 29.

Question 30.

Read the passage below and select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer for each question from 31 to 37.

Building environmentally-friendly habits has become increasingly important as the world faces environmental challenges such as climate change, pollution, and the depletion of natural resources. One of the most effective ways to make a positive impact is by adopting sustainable practices in daily life. Simple actions, such as reducing energy consumption, recycling waste, and using public transportation, can contribute significantly to protecting the environment.

For instance, turning off lights when they are not in use, unplugging electronic devices, and using energy-efficient appliances can all help reduce the demand for electricity, which is often produced from fossil fuels. Recycling is another powerful way to minimize waste and lower carbon emissions. It reduces the need for raw materials and helps decrease the amount of waste sent to landfills, where it produces harmful methane gas.

Moreover, the use of public transportation or bicycles instead of personal vehicles can lower air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions. It is also crucial to support companies and brands that prioritize sustainability in their products and practices. By choosing eco-friendly products, individuals can influence the market and encourage other businesses to follow sustainable practices.

Developing these habits may require time and effort, but they are essential in addressing global environmental issues. Each small action, when multiplied across millions of people, can lead to significant improvements for the planet.

Question 31. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. How to reduce energy consumption
B. The importance of building sustainable habits
C. The benefits of using public transportation
D. How companies can promote sustainability

Question 32. What does the passage suggest as a way to reduce electricity demand?
A. Using only public transportation
B. Supporting eco-friendly companies
C. Unplugging devices when not in use
D. Lowering the production of fossil fuels

Question 33. According to the passage, recycling helps to:
A. Increase the use of raw materials
B. Lower carbon emissions and waste
C. Eliminate all forms of pollution
D. Produce more energy-efficient appliances

Question 34. The phrase "depletion of natural resources" in the first paragraph most likely means:
A. Increasing the amount of natural resources
B. Overusing and exhausting natural resources
C. Enhancing the availability of natural resources
D. Storing more natural resources for future use

Question 35. Why does the passage emphasize the use of public transportation or bicycles?
A. To encourage people to avoid using public vehicles
B. To highlight the importance of lowering greenhouse gas emissions
C. To stress the need to invest in more private vehicles
D. To show the benefits of using renewable energy sources

Question 36. In paragraph 4, the word “they” refers to:
A. Companies
B. Products
C. Habits
D. People

Question 37. What is the passage's overall attitude towards adopting environmentally-friendly habits?
A. Skeptical
B. Encouraging
C. Indifferent
D. Critical

Read the passage below and select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer for each question from 38 to 45.

In today’s rapidly changing world, the job market is evolving, giving rise to various unusual occupations that reflect our unique cultural landscapes and technological advancements. While traditional jobs such as teaching, engineering, and healthcare remain prevalent, a number of unconventional careers have emerged, capturing the interest of adventurous individuals.

One notable example is the role of a professional mermaid. These performers entertain at aquatic events, parties, and even theme parks, captivating audiences with their elaborate costumes and swimming skills. Professional mermaids often undergo rigorous training to improve their breath-holding techniques and perform synchronized swimming routines. This job, while whimsical, requires dedication, physical fitness, and a passion for marine life.

Another unusual career is that of a scent designer. In an era where branding and marketing heavily rely on creating memorable experiences, scent designers craft unique fragrances that evoke specific emotions or memories. Their work often involves extensive research into how different scents affect mood and behavior. This role requires a keen understanding of human psychology, creativity, and a deep appreciation for the art of fragrance.

Additionally, there are professional ethical hackers who use their skills to help organizations secure their digital assets. Unlike traditional hackers who exploit vulnerabilities for malicious purposes, ethical hackers identify weaknesses in systems and work to strengthen their defenses. This high-stakes job demands advanced technical expertise, problem-solving skills, and a commitment to ethical standards.

Lastly, a less recognized yet fascinating occupation is that of a water slide tester. Employed by amusement parks, these testers evaluate the safety and enjoyment levels of water slides before they are opened to the public. This role involves a thorough assessment of the slide's design, speed, and overall experience, making it crucial for ensuring customer satisfaction and safety.

These unusual careers illustrate the diverse and innovative ways people are finding fulfillment in their work. As society continues to evolve, so too will the job market, creating new opportunities for those willing to explore unconventional paths.

Question 38. What is the primary aim of the passage?
A. To promote traditional jobs.
B. To highlight the importance of education in unusual careers.
C. To explore unconventional jobs that have emerged in the modern job market.
D. To discourage people from pursuing traditional occupations.

Question 39. What is a professional mermaid known for?
A. Performing at underwater shows and events.
B. Designing aquatic-themed merchandise.
C. Teaching swimming lessons.
D. Conducting marine research.

Question 40. The phrase "scent designer" describes an individual who...
A. develops unique fragrances for marketing purposes.
B. creates new recipes for perfumes.
C. studies the effects of scents on health.
D. manages the production of fragrances.

Question 41. According to the passage, ethical hackers are primarily responsible for...
A. stealing confidential information.
B. breaking into systems for malicious intent.
C. helping organizations improve their cybersecurity.
D. teaching hacking skills to others.

Question 42. The role of a water slide tester includes...
A. ensuring the water is clean and safe.
B. assessing the design and customer experience of water slides.
C. training staff on slide operation.
D. promoting the amusement park to potential visitors.

Question 43. The passage suggests that unusual jobs...
A. are often less rewarding than traditional jobs.
B. require less training and expertise.
C. reflect the evolving nature of the job market.
D. are not taken seriously by employers.

Question 44. What does the author imply about the future of the job market?
A. It will remain stagnant and predictable.
B. Traditional jobs will be replaced by unusual ones.
C. New opportunities will continue to emerge in various fields.
D. The demand for ethical hackers will decline.

Question 45. The passage is organized by...
A. describing a series of traditional jobs.
B. listing unusual jobs and detailing their responsibilities.
C. comparing salaries of different occupations.
D. discussing the challenges faced by workers in unusual jobs.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D from your answer sheet to identify the sentence that closely matches the meaning of each of the questions below.

Question 46. She was unable to go to the party due to not feeling well.
A. She attended the party despite feeling unwell.
B. She missed the party because she was sick.
C. She was too unwell to attend the party.
D. She felt well enough to attend the party.

Question 47. The manager decided to postpone the project due to unforeseen circumstances.
A. The project was canceled because the manager decided otherwise.
B. The manager could not proceed with the project because of unexpected issues.
C. The project was completed on time despite the circumstances.
D. The manager finished the project as planned.

Question 48. Although it was raining, they continued their picnic.
A. They canceled the picnic because of the rain.
B. They had a picnic in spite of the rain.
C. The rain stopped them from having a picnic.
D. They decided to have the picnic indoors because of the rain.

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the questions below.

Question 49. The weather was terrible. They decided to cancel the picnic.
A. They decided to cancel the picnic despite the weather was terrible.
B. The picnic canceled due to the terrible weather.
C. The weather was terrible, so they decided to cancel the picnic.
D. Canceling the picnic, they blamed the terrible weather.

Question 50. The company launched a new product. It received positive feedback from customers.
A. The company launched a new product, which received positive feedback from customers.
B. Customers received positive feedback after the company launched a new product.
C. A new product was launched by the company, receiving negative feedback from customers.
D. The new product that was launched by the company received positive feedback from customers.

Tham khảo thêm:

• Tóm tắt ngữ pháp Tiếng Anh lớp 12 Sách mới (sách thí điểm)

• Tổng hợp từ vựng tiếng Anh 12 theo Unit - Sách mới

Đề số 2

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

Question 2.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to identify the word that has a different primary stress position compared to the other three in each of the following questions.
Question 3.

Question 4.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the SYNONYM of the underlined word(s) in each of the subsequent questions.
Question 5. He decided to take the bull by the horns and tackle the project head-on.

Question 6. Her generosity knows no bounds, as she often goes above and beyond to help others.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the ANTONYM of the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. Despite facing numerous challenges, she managed to keep her chin up and maintain a positive attitude throughout the project.

Question 8. The teacher emphasized the importance of consistent effort in achieving academic success.

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the most suitable reply for each of the following conversations.

Question 9. John is excited about his new job.

John: “I got the job I applied for!”
His friend: “____________________”

A. That’s amazing news!
B. Are you sure?
C. Why did you apply?
D. I’m so sorry to hear that.

Question 10. Sophie is explaining her new recipe to her mother.

Sophie: “I tried a new recipe for chocolate cake.”
Her mother: “____________________”

A. It seems delicious!
B. I don’t like chocolate.
C. Why did you cook?
D. How much did it cost?

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the underlined section that requires correction in each of the sentences below.

Question 11. If I would have known about the meeting, I would have attended.

Question 12. She suggested that he studies harder to pass the exam.

Question 13. That book, that was on the table, was written by my favorite author.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most appropriate answer for each of the following questions.

Question 14. He’s been working really hard and needs to _____ a break.

Question 15. She has to ___ up with her noisy neighbors.

Question 16. If you want to improve your English, you should _______ more time practicing speaking and listening.

Question 17. ________, the weather was terrible during our vacation, but we managed to have a great time.

Question 18. She didn’t understand the lesson because she _______ absent last week.

Question 19. When the concert ends, the audience _______ their appreciation with loud applause.

Question 20. The doctor recommended that he _______ more vegetables in his diet for better health.

Question 21. If you _______ to the gym regularly, you would feel much healthier.

Question 22. The book _______ I borrowed from the library is about the history of ancient civilizations.

Question 23. Although he tried to _______ the problem, it only seemed to get worse as time went on.

Question 24. The teacher encouraged her students to _______ their ideas freely during the class discussion, no matter how unconventional they might be.

Question 25. The teacher was pleased ______ the progress her students made ______ the semester.

Read the passage below and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the appropriate word or phrase that best fills each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Urbanization, the process by which an increasing percentage of a population moves from rural to urban areas, has significantly transformed societies around the globe. This shift is often driven by the search for better job opportunities, education, and healthcare. As cities expand, they create a vibrant environment (26) ______ people can thrive, but this rapid growth also brings numerous challenges.

One major concern is the strain on infrastructure. With more people living in cities, (27) ______ demand for housing, transportation, and public services increases dramatically. Governments often struggle to keep up with this demand, leading to overcrowded living conditions and inadequate facilities. Furthermore, urbanization tends to lead to increased pollution levels, as more vehicles and industries contribute to environmental degradation.

Moreover, while urban centers are typically hubs of economic activity, they can also exacerbate social inequalities. Those who (28) ______ the benefits of urban life are often a small percentage, leaving many individuals in poverty. This disparity can foster a sense of alienation among urban residents, as they feel disconnected from the wealth generated in their cities.

In response to these issues, many cities are working to improve their sustainability and quality of life. Initiatives that (29) ______ green spaces, promote public transportation, and encourage community engagement are becoming increasingly popular. These efforts aim to create a more inclusive urban environment where everyone has the opportunity to (30) ______.

Question 26.

Question 27.

Question 28.

Question 29.

Question 30.

Read the passage below and select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer for each question from 31 to 37.

Urbanisation is a process that has been occurring in Vietnam for several decades. Since the economic reform known as Đổi Mới was introduced in 1986, Vietnam has experienced rapid urbanisation, transforming from a predominantly rural society into one that is increasingly urban. This shift is largely due to the growth of the industrial and service sectors, as well as the migration of people from rural areas to cities in search of better employment opportunities.

Hanoi and Ho Chi Minh City, the country’s two largest cities, have seen substantial population growth and infrastructure development. These cities have become hubs for economic activity, education, and culture, attracting millions of migrants from across the nation. However, urbanisation has also led to several challenges. Rapid urban growth has put pressure on housing, transportation, and public services. Traffic congestion, pollution, and the inadequate provision of clean water and sanitation are persistent problems in urban areas.

Despite these challenges, urbanisation is seen as a key driver of economic development in Vietnam. The government has implemented several policies to manage urban growth, including investments in infrastructure and efforts to develop smart cities. However, experts argue that more attention needs to be paid to ensuring sustainable urban development, particularly in terms of environmental protection and social equality.

Question 31. What is the main reason for Vietnam's urbanisation since 1986?
A. The growth of the agricultural sector.
B. The rise of the industrial and service sector.
C. The decline of rural areas.
D. The closure of industries.

Question 32. What challenge is mentioned as a result of urbanisation in Vietnamese cities?
A. Lack of educational institutions.
B. Decline in economic activity.
C. Inadequate public services.
D. Reduced migration to cities.

Question 33. In paragraph 2, the term "migrants" has a meaning that is most similar to:
A. tourists visting new places.
B. citizens living in a particular region.
C. travelers exploring new places.
D. people moving to new places.

Question 34. According to the passage, what has the government done to manage urbanisation?
A. Closed down factories in rural areas.
B. Encouraged people to stay in rural areas.
C. Developed policies and invested in infrastructure.
D. Reduced the number of people living in cities.

Question 35. The word "persistent" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. temporary.
B. ongoing.
C. occasional.
D. rare.

Question 36. What is one suggestion made by experts regarding urbanisation in Vietnam?
A. Focus on building more houses in cities.
B. Pay more attention to sustainable urban development.
C. Create more job opportunities in rural areas.
D. Increase the number of urban migrants.

Question 37. The passage suggests that urbanisation in Vietnam is:
A. harmful to the environment.
B. only beneficial to big cities.
C. essential for economic development.
D. causing a decline in cultural activities.

Read the passage below and select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer for each question from 38 to 45.

Traditional Customs Around the World

Across the globe, traditional customs serve as vibrant expressions of cultural identity and heritage. Each region has its unique practices, rituals, and celebrations that reflect the history and values of its people. These customs are not merely remnants of the past; they are living traditions that continue to shape contemporary society.

In Japan, for example, the custom of Hanami, or cherry blossom viewing, captures the essence of seasonal change and appreciation of nature. Every spring, families and friends gather under blooming cherry trees to celebrate the fleeting beauty of the blossoms. This tradition symbolizes the transient nature of life and encourages individuals to cherish the moment.

Meanwhile, in India, the festival of Diwali, also known as the Festival of Lights, marks the triumph of light over darkness and good over evil. During this time, homes are adorned with colorful decorations, and families come together to share feasts and perform prayers. The lighting of oil lamps signifies hope and renewal, fostering a sense of community and togetherness.

In contrast, in many African cultures, rites of passage ceremonies play a crucial role in marking significant transitions in a person's life. For instance, the Maasai tribe in Kenya and Tanzania holds elaborate ceremonies to celebrate a young warrior’s coming of age. These events often involve traditional dances, songs, and the display of colorful attire, reinforcing communal bonds and cultural pride.

Similarly, in Latin America, the Day of the Dead (Día de los Muertos) honors deceased loved ones through vibrant celebrations filled with music, food, and art. Families create altars adorned with photographs, flowers, and offerings to welcome the spirits of their ancestors back to the living world. This custom underscores the importance of remembering and celebrating the lives of those who have passed away.

These diverse traditions reflect the rich tapestry of human experience, reminding us of our shared values and the importance of cultural heritage in fostering understanding and respect among different societies.

Question 38. In general, the primary aim of the passage is…
A. To discuss the importance of preserving traditional customs.
B. To describe various traditional customs around the world.
C. To compare modern practices with ancient traditions.
D. To explain the significance of festivals in Japanese culture.

Question 39. The custom of Hanami in Japan is primarily associated with...
A. family gatherings.
B. celebrating the new year.
C. appreciating the beauty of nature.
D. honoring deceased loved ones.

Question 40. The word "transient" in the passage is closest in meaning to...
A. temporary.
B. enduring.
C. predictable.
D. significant.

Question 41. According to the passage, what does the festival of Diwali symbolize?
A. The arrival of spring.
B. The defeat of darkness by light.
C. The importance of family gatherings.
D. The transition to adulthood.

Question 42. The term "rites of passage" mentioned in the passage refers to...
A. celebrations of cultural identity.
B. ceremonies marking significant life changes.
C. traditional practices passed down through generations.
D. festivals that involve music and dance.

Question 43. What can be inferred about the Day of the Dead celebrations?
A. They are solely for children.
B. They focus on mourning the deceased.
C. They emphasize the importance of family and memory.
D. They discourage the remembrance of ancestors.

Question 44. The passage suggests that traditional customs...
A. are becoming less relevant in modern society.
B. foster understanding and respect among cultures.
C. should be replaced by contemporary practices.
D. are primarily historical and no longer practiced.

Question 45. Which option most accurately captures the tone of the passage?
A. Critical and analytical.
B. Informative and appreciative.
C. Humorous and lighthearted.
D. Formal and academic.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D from your answer sheet to identify the sentence that closely matches the meaning of each of the questions below.

Question 46. He has not been to the gym for a long time, so he is out of shape.
A. He frequently goes to the gym and stays in shape.
B. He has been going to the gym, but he still feels out of shape.
C. He hasn’t exercised in a while, which is why he is unfit.
D. He works out regularly and is very fit.

Question 47. The book was so interesting that I finished it in one day.
A. I took a long time to finish the book because it was interesting.
B. I found the book boring and couldn’t finish it.
C. I read the book quickly because it was fascinating.
D. The book took me several days to complete.

Question 48. Despite the difficulties, she managed to complete her assignments on time.
A. She found it easy to finish her assignments before the deadline.
B. She faced challenges and was late with her assignments.
C. She had trouble completing her assignments, but she was punctual.
D. The assignments were difficult, and she did not submit them.

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the questions below.

Question 49. The team worked hard. They won the championship.
A. The team worked hard and won the championship.
B. The championship was won by the team, who worked hard.
C. Working hard, the team won the championship.
D. The team worked hard because they won the championship.

Question 50. He has a busy schedule. He still finds time to exercise.
A. Despite his busy schedule, he still finds time to exercise.
B. He has a busy schedule, so he finds time to exercise.
C. He still finds time to exercise because he has a busy schedule.
D. Has a busy schedule, but he still finds time to exercise.

Đề số 3

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

Question 2.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to identify the word that has a different primary stress position compared to the other three in each of the following questions.
Question 3.

Question 4.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the SYNONYM of the underlined word(s) in each of the subsequent questions.
Question 5. The teacher encouraged the students to be innovative in their projects.

Question 6. Despite their differences, the team managed to find common ground and work together.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the ANTONYM of the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. He always takes the high road during conflicts, choosing not to engage in petty arguments that lead nowhere.

Question 8. Her ability to hit the ground running impressed everyone at the new job, especially those who typically needed time to adjust to changes.

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the most suitable reply for each of the following conversations.

Question 9. Mike is telling his colleague about a recent conference.

Mike: “I learned so much at the conference last week.”
His colleague: “____________________”

A. Was it really that helpful?
B. I didn’t want to go.
C. Who did you meet there?
D. Did you take notes?

Question 10. Emma is sharing her plans for a birthday party.

Emma: “I’m inviting all my friends to my birthday party next month.”
Her friend: “____________________”

A. Sounds like it will be fun!
B. Were you buying the cake?
C. I can’t come.
D. What will you wear?

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the underlined section that requires correction in each of the sentences below.

Question 11. The results of the experiment, which were surprising, showed that the theory was incorrect.

Question 12. She was one of the students who have achieved the highest scores in the class.

Question 13. The movie, which was released last year, have received positive reviews from critics.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most appropriate answer for each of the following questions.

Question 14. The plan was so ambitious, I can’t believe he managed to pull it ____.

Question 15. Despite his busy schedule, John always manages to _______ his work on time.

Question 16. The new policy will come into _______ next month, affecting all employees.

Question 17. ________, her presentation was well-received, although there were a few areas for improvement.

Question 18. If she _______ more time to study, she would have done better on the exam.

Question 19. The teacher asked the students if they _______ their homework before class.

Question 20. Although he _______ late last night, he still managed to wake up on time for work.

Question 21. By the time they arrive tomorrow, we _______ the presentation for the meeting.

Question 22. The students _______ won the competition were awarded scholarships for their outstanding performance.

Question 23. After her promotion, Jane had to _______ her responsibilities to include overseeing a larger team.

Question 24. When the team faced challenges, they knew they had to _______ their efforts to ensure they met the deadline.

Question 25. The committee decided to hold a meeting ______ the issues that have arisen ______ the recent changes in policy.

Read the passage below and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the appropriate word or phrase that best fills each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

In today’s fast-paced world, the nature of work is constantly evolving. One significant change has been the rise of remote work, which has transformed how employees approach their daily tasks. As technology continues to advance, many individuals have opted to (26) ______ the traditional office environment in favor of working from home. This shift has not only impacted productivity but also how teams (27) ______ and collaborate.

Remote work has allowed professionals to maintain a better work-life balance, as they can tailor their schedules to fit their personal needs. However, it has also introduced challenges. Many employees find it difficult to (28) ______ with colleagues effectively, leading to feelings of isolation. Organizations are now exploring various strategies to enhance communication and ensure that team members feel (29) ______ and valued, regardless of their physical location.

Moreover, the changing landscape of work has raised questions about the future of employment. With automation and artificial intelligence becoming increasingly prevalent, workers must be ready to (30) ______ new skills to remain competitive in the job market. As we move forward, adapting to these changes will be crucial for both employees and employers.

Question 26.

Question 27.

Question 28.

Question 29.

Question 30.

Read the passage below and select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer for each question from 31 to 37.

Culture Shock: Navigating the Emotional Impact of Moving Abroad

Relocating to a different country can be an exhilarating yet daunting journey. For many people, the initial phase of excitement, often referred to as the honeymoon phase, is quickly followed by a sense of confusion and frustration. This emotional rollercoaster is commonly known as culture shock. Culture shock occurs when people encounter a different way of life that challenges their pre-existing cultural norms and expectations.

One of the most immediate impacts of culture shock is the language barrier. Even when individuals have a strong grasp of the local language, everyday interactions can feel disorienting and exhausting. Misunderstandings are frequent, and the frustration of not being able to fully express oneself can lead to a sense of isolation. Beyond language, different social customs, values, and behaviors can make newcomers feel out of place. Simple activities, such as greeting strangers, using public transport, or even ordering food, can become sources of anxiety.

However, not all effects of culture shock are negative. Over time, individuals often develop a deeper appreciation for the new culture and adopt strategies to cope with the unfamiliar environment. These strategies include forming new friendships, learning more about local customs, and becoming more proficient in the local language. Eventually, most people reach a level of adjustment where they feel more comfortable and confident navigating their new surroundings. At this stage, what was once unfamiliar may even become part of their identity.

While culture shock can be challenging, it also provides an opportunity for personal growth. Embracing the difficulties and differences of a new culture allows individuals to broaden their perspectives and build resilience.

Question 31. What is the overall message of the passage regarding culture shock?

A. Personal growth is inevitable during culture shock.
B. It only happens to people who travel frequently.
C. It results from embracing and adapting to new cultural experiences.
D. Personal growth only occurs after many years abroad.

Question 32. What is the "honeymoon phase" mentioned in the passage?
A. A time when everything in a new culture feels confusing.
B. The initial period of excitement after moving to a new country.
C. A phase when individuals feel homesick.
D. A period of isolation after moving abroad.

Question 33. The phrase "emotional rollercoaster" in paragraph 1 suggests that individuals experiencing culture shock are:
A. Extremely happy
B. Constantly changing moods
C. Afraid of new experiences
D. Feeling calm and relaxed

Question 34. According to the passage, why do simple activities cause anxiety during culture shock?
A. People cannot afford to pay for basic necessities.
B. Newcomers are unfamiliar with local customs.
C. Individuals are too shy to engage with locals.
D. The local language is too difficult to learn.

Question 35. The word "disorienting" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. enlightening
B. frustrating
C. confusing
D. relaxing

Question 36. Which of the following is mentioned as a coping strategy for dealing with culture shock?
A. Avoiding all social interactions
B. Returning to one’s home country
C. Learning more about local customs
D. Sticking to one’s own cultural habits

Question 37. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Culture shock is only experienced by those who do not speak the local language.
B. Every individual eventually returns to their home country due to culture shock.
C. Building local friendships can help individuals cope with culture shock.
D. People usually dislike the new culture after experiencing culture shock.

Read the passage below and select the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer for each question from 38 to 45.

Throughout history, a few remarkable women have ascended to power, leaving a lasting impact on the world as queens. Among these influential figures, Queen Elizabeth I of England, Catherine the Great of Russia, and Cleopatra VII of Egypt stand out as exceptional leaders who ruled in challenging times.

Queen Elizabeth I, the daughter of King Henry VIII, became the ruler of England in 1558. Her reign, known as the Elizabethan Era, was marked by prosperity, cultural flourishing, and the strengthening of the English navy. Elizabeth skillfully navigated a world of political alliances and threats, successfully defending England from the Spanish Armada in 1588. She remained unmarried throughout her reign, earning the nickname "The Virgin Queen," and focused on her role as a monarch, enhancing England's influence globally.

Catherine the Great, originally a minor German princess, became the Empress of Russia in 1762 after overthrowing her husband, Tsar Peter III. Her rule is often seen as a period of enlightenment, where she promoted arts, education, and the modernization of Russia. Catherine expanded Russian territory significantly, establishing the country as a dominant power in Europe. Despite facing numerous rebellions and criticisms, she maintained her position with determination and political acumen.

In ancient Egypt, Cleopatra VII remains one of the most iconic queens in history. Known for her intelligence, charisma, and political alliances with powerful Roman leaders such as Julius Caesar and Mark Antony, Cleopatra sought to restore Egypt's power. Although her reign ended with her tragic death in 30 B.C., her story has become legendary, symbolizing both romance and political intrigue.

These queens, despite the distinct challenges they faced, share common traits: intelligence, political strategy, and dedication to their countries. They each played a crucial role in shaping history, proving that leadership is not limited by gender but by the determination and ability to wield power effectively.

Question 38. What is this passage mainly about?

A. The passage discusses the military accomplishments of famous queens.
B. The passage highlights the economic policies of historical queens.
C. The passage explores the challenges and achievements of notable queens in history.
D. The passage examines the family relationships of famous female rulers.

Question 39. Why was Queen Elizabeth I called "The Virgin Queen"?

A. She was known for her strict religious beliefs.
B. She remained unmarried throughout her life.
C. She led a series of religious reforms in England.
D. She was the first queen to rule without a king.

Question 40. The phrase "ascended to power" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:

A. acquired authority
B. lost influence
C. fell from grace
D. surrendered control

Question 41. In paragraph 2, the word “flourishing” most likely means:

A. decreasing
B. unstable
C. thriving
D. restrained

Question 42. The phrase "focused on her role as a monarch" in paragraph 2 suggests that Elizabeth I:

A. prioritized her duties as a queen over personal relationships.
B. often relied on others to make decisions for her.
C. ignored political affairs to concentrate on cultural issues.
D. had little interest in expanding her influence.

Question 43. What statements accurately describe Catherine the Great?

A. She was originally from Russia.
B. She led the Russian Revolution.
C. She encouraged cultural and educational reforms.
D. She was known for her religious devotion.

Question 44. What can be inferred about Cleopatra’s alliances with Roman leaders?

A. They were primarily for romantic purposes.
B. They were strategic moves to strengthen Egypt's position.
C. They were unsuccessful in preventing her downfall.
D. They were criticized by her advisors in Egypt.

Question 45. How did Queen Elizabeth I, Catherine the Great, and Cleopatra VII demonstrate leadership according to the passage?

A. They focused solely on military conquests rather than political strategy.
B. They prioritized family and personal relationships over political affairs.
C. They utilized intelligence, political strategy, and dedication to their countries.
D. They led religious reforms to improve social stability.

Select the letter A, B, C, or D from your answer sheet to identify the sentence that closely matches the meaning of each of the questions below.

Question 46. If you had told me about the problem earlier, I could have helped you.
A. You should have informed me sooner so I could assist you.
B. I helped you with the problem because you told me on time.
C. I didn’t know about the problem until it was too late.
D. You could have resolved the problem by yourself.

Question 47. The teacher encouraged the students to participate in the competition.
A. The students were discouraged from joining the competition.
B. The teacher advised the students against competing.
C. The students were motivated by the teacher to join the competition.
D. The teacher did not want the students to compete.

Question 48. She said, “I will help you with your homework tomorrow.”
A. She offered to help with the homework yesterday.
B. She promised to assist with the homework the next day.
C. She refused to help with the homework.
D. She helped with the homework today.

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the questions below.

Question 49. The film was a huge success. It broke several box office records.
A. The film was a huge success, and it broke several box office records.
B. The film broke several box office records, but it was a huge success.
C. The film was a huge success although it broke several box office records.
D. Breaking several box office records, the film was a huge success.

Question 50. Many people attended the concert. It was a memorable event.
A. Many people attended the concert although it was a memorable event.
B. The concert was not memorable that many people attended it.
C. Many people attended the concert, which was a memorable event.
D. The memorable event was attended by many people at the concert.

Đọc thêm:

• Bài tập Verb form lớp 12 – Tổng hợp lý thuyết, bài tập và đáp án

• Bài tập tiếng Anh lớp 12: Các dạng bài phổ biến trong kiểm tra

• Bài tập viết lại câu Tiếng Anh 12: Lý thuyết, cấu trúc, và luyện tập

Đáp án tham khảo

Đề số 1

Đề số 2

Đề số 3

Tổng kết

Tác giả hy vọng 3 đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 12 học kì 1 theo chương trình Global Success sẽ là nguồn tham khảo hữu ích cho các giáo viên và học sinh để có thêm ý tưởng trong quá trình soạn bài, chuẩn bị bài cũng như luyện đề và trau dồi toàn diện các kĩ năng. Trong quá trình ôn tập, học sinh có thể để lại thắc mắc tại diễn đàn ZIM Helper để được hỗ trợ giải đáp, đồng thời luyện thi IELTS để thử thách và rèn luyện khả năng tiếng Anh của mình.